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Question 1:

Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware devices?

A. Symantec 2950 series appliances

B. Symantec 3570 series appliances

C. Symantec 7100 series appliances

D. Symantec 8300 series appliances

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which two are functions of a Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 scanner? (Select two.)

A. provides quarantine storage for messages

B. downloads virus definitions

C. hosts a web server

D. filters the message stream

E. runs expunger agents for the quarantine

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

What do content incident folders allow administrators to configure?

A. granular access control

B. the X- header added for client processing

C. the incident folder names passed to the client

D. additional folders where end-users can store junk mail

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What is a valid configuration option for Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5?

A. One Control Center,one combination control center/scanner

B. One Control Center,three scanners,and one Report Center

C. One combination control center/scanner,and 3 scanners

D. Two scanners and one LiveUpdate server

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

When configuring remote logging, where are the logs redirected?

A. The primary control center

B. Symantec System Incident Manager (SSIM)

C. Application Eventlog

D. syslog

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Having received a targeted attack from a spoofed email domain, a company wants to take advantage of DKIM validation for inbound mail. The messaging administrator has enabled sender authentication and DKIM validation and now needs to configure a content filtering policy to quarantine any messages that fail. Which condition should be met for the content filtering policy to fire?

A. The envelope sender email address contains “dkim=fail”.

B. The message header contains “dkim=fail”.

C. The file metadata MIME type is “dkim=fail”.

D. The text in the subject,body,or attachments contains “dkim=fail”.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

An administrator needs to determine which policies have triggered for a particular message. Which troubleshooting tool will help to identify issues with policy precedence and actions?

A. Incident Match log

B. Filtering Policy report

C. Filtering Precedence Exception report

D. Message Audit log

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Where does an administrator specify how often a report is run?

A. Reports -> Schedule

B. Reports -> Create a Reports

C. Reports -> Favorite Reports

D. Reports -> Schedule Reports

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which two report file formats are available in Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 for executive summary reports? (Select two.)

A. CSV

B. PDF

C. DOCX

D. XML

E. HTML

Correct Answer: BE


Question 10:

Which two features of Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 can be implemented to address the need of Data Loss Prevention (DLP)? (Select two.)

A. setup content filtering rules using pre-defined content category dictionaries

B. setup connection to any industry standard DLP product

C. setup content filtering rules to strip out any executable content

D. enforce antivirus scanning for all outbound email

E. setup connection to Symantec\’s DLP Enforce product

Correct Answer: AE


Question 11:

On which two servers can the administrator remediate Data Loss Prevention (DLP) incidents? (Select two.)

A. The destination mail server,such as Microsoft Exchange or Lotus Domino.

B. The Symantec Messaging Gateway Scanner.

C. The Symantec Messaging Gateway Control Center.

D. The Symantec DLP Network Prevent server.

E. The Symantec DLP Enforce server.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 12:

After the bootstrap process is completed, which action is unavailable through the web-based interface?

A. Selecting the time zone

B. Defining the Messaging Gateway role

C. Changing the administrator\’s password

D. Defining the IP address of the DNS server

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue scanning and delivery of messages?

A. delete the Scanner from the Control Center so that it is no longer used

B. set the Scanner configuration to “Pause message scanning and delivery”

C. set the Scanner configuration to “Do not accept incoming messages”

D. disable the Conduit so that new messages are not accepted

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 feature will change the original domain of an internal user relaying mail outside of an organization?

A. Address masquerading

B. Address aliasing

C. Domain mapping

D. Content filtering

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

A customer receives large amounts of non-spam mail from thousands of different users, which consumes significant resources on Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5. Which feature should be enabled to improve system performance while minimizing the risk of false positives?

A. Creation of custom spam rules using SenderID

B. Fastpass

C. Domain whitelisting

D. Sender authentication

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You need to remove a service group named Group A. You have already removed all resources from the group. Which command do you use to remove the group?

A. hagrp emove GroupA

B. hagrp elete GroupA

C. hagrp emove group GroupA

D. hagrp elete group GroupA

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which directive is used in /etc/llttab to define a low-priority link?

A. Link

B. lowpri-link

C. Link-lowpri

D. lowpri

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

How would you enable the setting of different values for the Device attribute of the NIC resource named NetNIC?

A. hares -enable NetNIC Device

B. hares -localize NetNIC Device

C. hares -local NetNIC Device

D. hares -onlinelocal NetNIC Device

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Given the following lltstat output:

LLT node information:

Node State Link Status Address

* 0 SystemA OPEN

nic0 UP 00:03:BA:37:20:84

nic1 UP 00:03:BA:37:20:85

1 SystemB OPEN

nic0 UP 00:03:BA:36:E7:B0

nic1 UP 00:03:BA:36:E7:B1

Which statement is true?

A. The heartbeat links on SystemB are configured on nic0 and nic1.

B. The heartbeat links on SystemA are configured on nic0 and nic1.

C. The heartbeat links are configured using crossover cables.

D. There is a low-priority heartbeat link configured.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Given the partial main.cf definition:

cluster VCS1 (

UserNames = { admin = ElmElgLimHmmKumGlj,

Administrators = { admin }

CounterInterval = 5

)

system S1 (

)

system S2 (

)

VCS1 has two private heartbeat links. During the tests, both heartbeat links were unplugged simultaneously.

What could be added to the configuration to prevent split-brain condition?

A. FireDrill

B. Quorum disk

C. I/O Fencing

D. HeartBeat service group

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Click on the Exhibit Button.

All service groups have FailOverPolicy=Load and are allowed to run on all of the systems. What happens if Svr4 faults?

A. G4 fails over to Svr1 and G5 remains offline everywhere.

B. G4 fails over to Svr1 and G5 fails over to Svr3.

C. G4 fails over to Svr3 and G5 fails over to Svr2.

D. G4 fails over to Svr3 and G5 remains offline everywhere.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

If the host name is changed in the sysname file, which other files need to be modified? (Choose three.)

A. llthosts

B. gabtab

C. llttab

D. main.cf

E. types.cf

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 8:

A cluster system had hardware upgrades performed. Upon reboot, it does not join the cluster. What should you verify? (Choose two.)

A. LLT ports have IP addresses.

B. LLT links are connected.

C. Hardware is identical.

D. LLT and GAB are both running.

E. The cluster ID is unique on all systems.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

What is the first step you should take to upgrade the operating system on a VCS node?

A. Start the upgrade process

B. Freeze the service groups

C. Migrate online service groups

D. Shut down VCS on all nodes

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A two-system VCS cluster has two dedicated Ethernet heartbeat links andI/O Fencing enabled. What will happen if both heartbeat links simultaneously fail?

A. The cluster automatically stops on both systems.

B. All services groups are frozen on both systems.

C. Both systems panic and reboot into the cluster.

D. One system panics and the other remains running.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Two Process resources named ResourceA and ResourceB are configured in a service group using the command-line interface. ResourceA is configured as a child to ResourceB, and the Critical attribute of ResourceB is modified from the default value.

What is the expected result of shutting down the ResourceB process outside of VCS?

A. Both ResourceA and ResourceB go offline.

B. ResourceA is online and ResourceB is restarted.

C. ResourceB is faulted and the service group fails over.

D. ResourceB is faulted and ResourceA is online.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A two-system cluster has three failover service groups as shown in the exhibit. The RedSG and WhiteSG service groups are online on node1; the BlueSG service group is online on node2. All resources are enabled and critical. Which action does VCS take when a resource in the WhiteSG service group faults?

A. The WhiteSG service group enters a faulted state, and the RedSG service group remains online.

B. The WhiteSG service group enters a faulted state on node1, and the BlueSG service group is taken offline.

C. The WhiteSG service group enters a faulted state on node1 and fails over to node2.

D. The WhiteSG service group enters a faulted state on node1, and the RedSG service group is taken offline.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Given a resource with the Critical attribute set to its default value, what action does HAD take if that resource faults?

A. Leaves the service group partially online

B. Restarts the failed resource

C. Inititates a failover

D. Brings only critical resources offline

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

How is an admin account added to receive notification?

A. by modifying the notifier SmtpRecipients attribute while online

B. by modifying the SmtpAdmins in the main.cf file of the active cluster

C. by modifying the SmtpRecipients attribute and restarting the notifier

D. by modifying the SmtpAdmins attribute and restarting the notifier

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) utility is used to verify a configuration file and can also be used by the VCS engine to load a configuration file at runtime?

A. hacf

B. haconf

C. haclus

D. haverify

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

An administrator needs to prevent users on all client systems from performing user-directed restores while ensuring they are able to view the contents of all previous backup images. What should the administrator configure to accomplish this goal?

A. enable the Master Server Host Property – Browse timeframe for restores

B. enable the Master Server Host Property for clients listed in the Client Attribute – Allow browse

C. de-select the “Allow server file writes” parameter in the Host Properties of the Master Server

D. de-select the “Allow client restore” parameter in the Host Properties of the Master Server

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

An administrator wants to use a client as the VMware backup host. Where is the name of the VMware backup host entered in NetBackup?

A. Access Management > Virtual Machine Servers

B. Host Properties > Clients > VMware Access Hosts

C. Host Properties > Master Server > VMware Access Hosts

D. Media and Device Management > Credentials > Virtual Machine Servers

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with additional characters.

How should an administrator enable NetBackup 7.6.1 to use the same characters as before the firmware upgrade occurred?

A. update the Media ID Generation setting

B. update Media settings

C. update Device mappings

D. update the Barcode Rules setting

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which volume pool must be manually created in NetBackup?

A. NetBackup

B. DataStore

C. Scratch

D. CatalogBackup

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

An administrator has a backup policy with the following attributes: 5 paths listed in the Backup Selections list 3 clients listed in the Clients list Allow multiple data streams is selected Max Jobs per Client value set to 4 How many jobs go Active when the job is started, excluding parent jobs?

A. 8

B. 9

C. 12

D. 15

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

A policy is created using the Standard policy type. The default settings are used. Linux hosts s1 and s2 are added in the client list and ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES is specified in the Backup Selection.

Host s1 has the mount points listed below:

/

/opt

/usr

/usr/home

Host s2 has the mount points listed below: / /proc /tmp /usr How many streams will be created when the policy runs for both clients?

A. two

B. four

C. five

D. eight

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An administrator needs to store secure tape copies of protected data to an offsite location. How can the administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create detailed reports?

A. encrypt the tapes using software encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automatic ejects and create reports

B. enable the encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

D. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which scenario accurately describes the creation of a full synthetic backup using tape?

A. a single drive can be used for both the read and write of the backup

B. a separate read drive and write drive can be used on the same Media Server

C. a read and write drive can be used on different Media Servers

D. a disk storage unit must be used prior to copying the backup to tape

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is the image removal behavior for relocated images from a disk staging storage unit when the high water mark is reached during a backup?

A. NetBackup removes the oldest images until the low water mark is reached.

B. NetBackup removes images alphabetically until the low water mark is reached.

C. NetBackup removes the largest images until the low water mark is reached.

D. NetBackup removes images with the lowest rank data classification until the low water mark is reached.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

The administrator of a large bank needs to preserve financial information for an extended period of time. The bank\’s NetBackup 7.6.1 catalog is now over 800GB in size, causing the catalog backups to contend for resources with production system backups. How can the administrator shorten the time needed to back up the catalog?

A. use the NetBackup 7.6.1 Agent for Symantec Enterprise Vault to perform an online archive of the catalog

B. create a catalog archive policy and execute it from the command line using the bpcatarc command

C. use the NetBackup 7.6.1 client-side deduplication feature to shorten the time it takes to perform a catalog backup

D. back up the catalog by scheduling an online Sybase database backup policy to allow the backup to run without contending for resources

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

In which order should an administrator perform upgrades to a major release in a NetBackup environment?

A. Master Server, OpsCenter Server, Media Server, Clients

B. OpsCenter Server, Master Server, Media Server, Clients

C. Master Server, Media Server, OpsCenter Server, Clients

D. Master Server, Media Server, Clients, OpsCenter Server

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which information is validated during an image verification operation?

A. data on the client is validated with data on the volume

B. data on the client is validated with data in the NetBackup catalog

C. data on the volume is validated with data in the NetBackup catalog

D. data on the client and the volume is validated with data in the NetBackup catalog

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The following storage lifecycle policy was used to back up data from a client. Storage Lifecycle Policy Backup to AdvancedDisk Duplication to tape Duplication to AdvancedDisk How should an administrator restore data from the tape using NetBackup?

A. from the BAR GUI, select the tape backup to restore from

B. use bpduplicate command to promote copy 1 to the primary copy

C. from the NetBackup Administration console, promote copy 1 to the primary copy

D. from the NetBackup Administration console, promote copy 2 to the primary copy

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which operation compares the contents of an image to the NetBackup catalog?

A. Verify

B. Duplicate

C. Import

D. Rehydrate

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

The MSDP catalog on a Media Server has become corrupted. Which two methods are available to bring the MSDP pool back online? (Select two.)

A. restore the MSDP catalog from the NetBackup catalog backup

B. recover the MSDP catalog from the MSDP catalog backup

C. repair the MSDP catalog using the crchk tool

D. restore the MSDP catalog from an MSDP catalogshadow copy

E. repair the MSDP catalog using the recoverCR tool

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

A manufacturing company runs three shifts at their Bristol Sales office. These employees currently share desktops in the B_Desktops group. The administrators need to apply different policies/configurations for each shift. Which step should the administrator take in order to implement shift policies after switching the clients to user mode?

A. create three shift policies for the Bristol group

B. create a group for each shift of users in the Bristol group

C. turn on inheritance for all groups in England

D. turn on Active Directory integration

E. modify the B_Desktops policy

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A financial company enforces a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from connecting to the Internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection technology is ineffective on this company\’s workstations?

A. Insight

B. Intrusion Prevention

C. Network Threat Protection

D. Browser Intrusion Prevention

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A company has an application that requires network traffic in both directions to multiple systems at a specific external domain. A firewall rule was created to allow traffic to and from the external domain, but the rule is blocking incoming traffic. What should an administrator enable in the firewall policy to allow this traffic?

A. TCP resequencing

B. Smart DHCP

C. Reverse DNS Lookup

D. Smart WINS

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An administrator selects the Backup files before attempting to repair the Remediations option in the Auto-Protect policies. Which two actions occur when a virus is detected? (Select two.)

A. replace the file with a place holder

B. check the reputation

C. store in Quarantine folder

D. send the file to Symantec Insight

E. encrypt the file

Correct Answer: CE


Question 5:

A threat was detected by Auto-Protect on a client system.

Which command can an administrator run to determine whether additional threats exist?

A. Restart Client Computer

B. Update Content and Scan

C. Enable Network Threat Protection

D. Enable Download Insight

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which Symantec Endpoint Protection Management (SEPM) database option is the default for deployments of fewer than 1,000 clients?

A. EmbeddeD. Using the Sybase SQL Anywhere database that comes with the product

B. On SEPM: Installing Microsoft SQL on the same server as the SEPM

C. External to SEPM: Using a preexisting Microsoft SQL server in the environment

D. EmbeddeD. Using the Microsoft SQL database that comes with the product

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A company plans to install six Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers (SEPMs) spread evenly across two sites. The administrator needs to direct replication activity to SEPM3 server in Site 1 and SEPM4 in Site 2. Which two actions should the administrator take to direct replication activity to SEPM3 and SEPM4? (Select two.)

A. Install SEPM3 and SEPM4 after the other SEPMs

B. Install the SQL Server databases on SEPM3 and SEPM4

C. Ensure SEPM3 and SEPM4 are defined as the top priority server in the Site Settings

D. Ensure SEPM3 and SEPM4 are defined as remote servers in the replication partner configuration

E. Install IT Analytics on SEPM3 and SEPM4

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

A large-scale virus attack is occurring and a notification condition is configured to send an email whenever viruses infect five computers on the network. A Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator has set a one hour damper period for that notification condition.

How many notifications does the administrator receive after 30 computers are infected in two hours?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 6

D. 15

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An administrator is reviewing an Infected Clients Report and notices that a client repeatedly shows the same malware detection. Although the client remediates the files, the infection continues to display in the logs. Which two functions should be enabled to automate enhanced remediation of a detected threat and its related side effects? (Select two.)

A. Risk Tracer

B. Terminate Processes Automatically

C. Early Launch Anti-Malware Driver

D. Stop Service Automatically

E. Stop and Reload AutoProtect

Correct Answer: BD


Question 10:

An administrator needs to configure Secure Socket Layer (SSL) communication for clients. In the httpd.conf file, located on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM), the administrator removes the hashmark (#) from the text string

displayed below.

#Include conf/ssl/sslForcClients.conf<

Which two tasks must the administrator perform to complete the SSL configuration? (Select two.)

A. edit site.properties and change the port to 443

B. restart the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager Webserver service

C. change the default certificates on the SEPM and reboot

D. change the Management Server List and enable HTTPs

E. change the port in Clients > Group > Policies > Settings > Communication Settings and force the clients to reconnect

Correct Answer: BD


Question 11:

How are Insight results stored?

A. Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

B. Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

C. Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Client

D. Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Client

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator must block traffic from an attacking computer for a specific time period. Where should the administrator adjust the time to block the attacking computer?

A. in the firewall policy, under Protection and Stealth

B. in the firewall policy, under Built in Rules

C. in the group policy, under External Communication Settings

D. in the group policy, under Communication Settings

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Where in the Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) management console will a SEP administrator find the option to allow all users to enable and disable the client firewall?

A. Client User Interface Control Settings

B. Overview in Firewall Policy

C. Settings in Intrusion Prevention Policy

D. System Lockdown in Group Policy

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.symantec.com/connect/forums/disable-protection-endpoint-protection-manager


Question 14:

An administrator plans to implement a multi-site Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) deployment. The administrator needs to determine whether replication is viable without having to make network firewall changes or change defaults in SEP.

Which port should the administrator verify is open on the path of communication between the two proposed sites? (Type the port number.)

A. 8443

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which action must a Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator take before creating custom Intrusion Prevention signatures?

A. Change the custom signature order

B. Create a Custom Intrusion Prevention Signature library

C. Define signature variables

D. Enable signature logging

Correct Answer: B

References: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO80877.html


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Question 1:

Which option for zypper will list the available patches?

A. zypper showpatch

B. zypper patch

C. zypper Ip

D. zypper list-patch

E. zypper lu

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: First, view all available patches using patches option as shown below:

zypper patches

Next, you can install a specific patch from the above output using the patch option as shown below.

zypper patch

https://www.thegeekstuff.com/2015/04/zypper-examples/


Question 2:

Assume you need to make the third menu entry of your GRUB2 boot menu your default menu selection. What tasks must be completed to accomplish this? (Choose two)

A. Run the grub2-mkconfig command

B. Edit the /etc/default/grub file and set GRUB_DEFAULX to 2

C. Run the mkinitrd command

D. Edit /etc/grub2/custom.cfg and set GRUB_MENU to3

E. Edit the /boot/grub2/menu.cfg file and set MENU_DEFAULT to 3

F. Run the systemctl reload systemd command

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

What does the term “action* mean when referring to system logging in SUSE Linux Enterprise?

A. An action defines where a log message ends up such as in a regular file or database table.

B. An action is used to define the severity of a log message.

C. An action is used to filter out desired log messages for processing.

D. An action is a process that the issuing facility must go through before issuing the log message.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which directory is traditionally used as a catch all to mount local and/or remote file systems?

A. /mnt

B. /etc

C. /home

D. /var

E. /tmP

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

You are working at a terminal window of a server at the office, but you want to continue this work by remotely accessing the terminal session from your home office. Which command will you need to use to accomplish this?

A. screen

B. bg

C. -tty-release

D. Ctrl-fa, r

E. bg -term disconnect

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

For programs to leverage PolKit they are split into two separate processes. Which statements below are true regarding these two PolKit processes? {Choose two)

A. The Policy Agent process runs in the System Context.

B. The Policy Agent process runs in the User Session.

C. The Mechanism process runs in the System Context.

D. The Mechanism process runs in the User Session.

E. The Authentication Agent runs in the System Context.

F. The D-Bus runs in the User Session.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 7:

When using the nice command, which of the following is the higher priority, -15 or 7?

A. 7

B. -15

C. Neither since the values are not within the acceptable range. \

D. It depends on the system priority set by the scheduler when the task was launched.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which system initialization system is used in SLES 15?

A. undev

B. init

C. System V

D. systemd

E. UEFI

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: The program systemd is the process with process ID 1. It is responsible for initializing the system in the required way. systemd is started directly by the kernel and resists signal 9, which normally terminates processes. All other programs are either started directly by systemd or by one of its child processes.


Question 9:

Which Vim command will save the current file without exiting?

A. q!

B. w-no-exit

C. wq!

D. w

E. w!

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Save a File in Vim / Vi #The command to save a file in Vim is :w. To save the file without exiting the editor, switch back to normal mode by pressing Esc, type :w and hit Enter. https://linuxize.com/post/how-to-save-file-in-vim-quit-editor/


Question 10:

After the Kernel has been loaded during the boot process, which component will handle hardware detection?

A. udev

B. devmgr

C. initramfs

D. hal

E. devfsd

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which file contains information about secondary groups on the system?

A. /etc/second.grp

B. /var/share/group

C. etc/sysconflg/group

D. /etc/group

E. /var/lib/group

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You want to add two new custom items to the GRUB2 boot menu. Which file should you modify to accomplish this?

A. /etc/grub.d/custom.cfg

B. /etc/default/grub

C. /etc/boot/grub.cfg

D. /boot/grub2/menu.cfg

E. /boot/grub2/custom.cfg

Correct Answer: E

Explanation: https://documentation.suse.com/sles/12-SP4/html/SLES-all/cha-grub2.html


Question 13:

Which command is used to manage software RAID?

A. mdadm

B. yast swraid

C. raidadm

D. fdisk –raid

E. mdmgr

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

You\’re setting up a SUES 15 server which will require very large data volumes and journaling capabilities. Which file system listed below would be the best choice for your data volumes?

A. VFAT

B. XFS

C. Ext2

D. ReiserFS

E. Ext3

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which bash commands result in a valid arithmetic expansion? (Choose three)

A. TOTAL=$((5.3 2.2))

B. TOTAL=$[8/2]

C. TOTAL=$[8.4/2.1]

D. TOTAL=$[2.1*4]

E. TOTAL=$((5 2))

F. ((TOTAL ))

Correct Answer: AE


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Question 1:

An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight Alert Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running. Which policy should the administrator configure?

A. Malware Blocking policy

B. Application Metering policy

C. Custom Inventory policy

D. Software Inventory policy

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application. During deployment, the administrator determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be changed without modifying the MSI. The administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package. Which policies would be affected when the default install command line of a software package is modified in the Software Catalog?

A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer

B. policies that leverage Software Discovery

C. policies currently referencing the modified entry

D. policies referencing staged software updates

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new application. What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?

A. Detection Rule

B. Applicability Rule

C. Basic Inventory

D. Software Filter

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called “Solitaire 2099” has been installed on company desktops. The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the company standard browser toolbar and needs to be removed immediately. The administrator has also been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that they can receive a private email about the situation. Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)

A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an application.B.Inventory Solution automatically associates software titles to users.

B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.

C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application isexecuted.

D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1? (Select two.)

A. Service Desk

B. CMDB Solution

C. pcAnywhere

D. Wise Package Studio Professional

E. Deployment Solution

Correct Answer: CE


Question 6:

What is a benefit of using the Software Library?

A. It offers a single, virtual location of multiple physical locations for simple access and management of software packages.

B. It offers a single, physical location on the network where all software packages are stored for distribution.

C. It offers a single, physical location where end-users can access software to be installed to their local system.

D. It offers a single, virtual location where applications can be installed as virtual layers for a scheduled, limited timeperiod.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A system administrator needs to review the installation status of the agent plug-ins that have been enabled for a specific computer. In which two places will the administrator find this information? (Select two.)

A. the Policies view on the Symantec Management Console

B. the Computer view on the Symantec Management Console

C. the My Portal page on the Symantec Management Console

D. the Software Delivery tab of the Symantec Management Agent

E. the Jobs/Tasks tab on the Symantec Management Agent

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

A system administrator logs on to a managed computer to update the agent policies for software delivery. Which action should the administrator perform to refresh the policies?

A. Right-click the Symantec Management Agent, select Settings and update the Sent Basic Inventory Date andTime.

B. Right-click the Symantec Management Agent, select Settings, and Update the Configuration Requested/Changed, Date andTime.

C. Right-click the Symantec Management Agent and select Software Update Configuration.

D. Right-click the Symantec Management Agent and select Task tab and Update the Configuration Requested/Changed, Date andTime.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What are two attributes of an entry within the Software Catalog? (Select two.)

A. command lines

B. download location

C. installation path

D. attribute rules

E. applicability rules

Correct Answer: AE


Question 10:

A help desk technician is responding to a printing problem and suspects the problem is the Windows print spooler service. Using Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1, how can the technician verify that the print spooler service is actively running before contacting the user?

A. Real-Time System Manager

B. Resource Manager

C. Symantec Remote Assistance

D. Inventory Solution

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which criteria must be met before a Software Update policy can be created through the Patch Remediation Center?

A. The number in the Updates column must equal the number in the Downloaded column.

B. Computers must be discovered that require the particular softwareupdate.

C. Software updates must first be downloaded from the Symantecwebsite.

D. Software updates must be marked as ready to install in the Patch Remediation Center.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?

A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.

B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.

C. It gathers detailed information about application files.

D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which items must be specified to minimize duplication of data and minimize processing on the Notification Server when manually adding a software resource to the Software Catalog?

A. Product Name, Software Product, and Language

B. Product Name, Version, and Manufacturer

C. Product Name, Version, and Software Product

D. Product Name, Version, and Language

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

An administrator needs to create an exact image of a computer using Deployment Solution 7.1. Which type of imaging task should the administrator use?

A. Capture Disk Image task

B. Backup Disk Image task

C. Capture Personality task

D. Restore Backup Image task

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which two types of user profiles can PC Transplant capture? (Select two.)

A. Mac users

B. Local Windows users

C. Linux users

D. Windows domain users

E. Novell Netware users

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

Which two optimized duplication methods are supported between media server deduplication pools? (Select two.)

A. media server deduplication pool optimized duplication within the same domain

B. auto image replication

C. PureDisk storage pool optimized duplication to media server deduplication pool

D. replication director

E. media server deduplication pool optimized duplication to any storage unit group

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

Which two characteristics of a backup are defined in the storage unit configuration? (Select two.)

A. which master server is used

B. which media server is used

C. which storage device is used

D. which volume group is used

E. which volume pool is used

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

What is a benefit of Symantec NetBackup Accelerator?

A. faster full backups by eliminating the need to read the entire file system

B. faster processing of media server deduplication pool fingerprints

C. faster processing by the Symantec NetBackup EMM database

D. faster full backups by synthesizing existing full and incremental backups

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as before the firmware upgrade occurred?

A. update the Media ID Generation setting

B. update the Robot Type mapping

C. update the Media Type mapping

D. update the Barcode Rules setting

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured barcode rule?

A. Symantec NetBackup pool

B. Scratch pool

C. Default pool

D. None pool

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Auto Image Replication is being used to replicate New York backups to London. The New York backups have completed. What is the next step?

A. image duplicated to London using a storage lifecycle policy to a Disk Staging Storage Unit

B. image duplicated to London using a Disk Staging Storage Unit

C. image duplicated to London using a storage lifecycle policy to a media server deduplication pool

D. image duplicated to London using Symantec NetBackup Vault to tape

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

What is the recommended minimum hard-drive size for a virtual instance of Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5?

A. 80 GB

B. 90 GB

C. 160 GB

D. 180 GB

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What are two installation options for Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5? (Select two.)

A. upgrade from Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0.3

B. enable autoupdate in LiveUpdate settings

C. upgrade from Symantec Mail Security for SMTP (SMS-SMTP) 8.0.3

D. OSRestore using the downloadable VMWare OVF template

E. OSRestore from the Symantec BrightmailGateway 10.5CD

Correct Answer: AE


Question 3:

Message throughput of a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner-only appliance can be reduced by which two features? (Select two.)

A. rapid release definitions

B. real-time updates

C. DKIM signing

D. SMTP authentication

E. hourly quarantine expunging

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware devices?

A. Symantec 2950 series appliances

B. Symantec 3570 series appliances

C. Symantec 7100 series appliances

D. Symantec 8300 series appliances

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

What is required before completing the bootstrap process of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 appliance?

A. 30-day temporary license file

B. DNS server IP address

C. SSH access to the appliance

D. MX record created for appliance

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which two tasks can an end-user perform while logged in to the Control Center when authentication and address resolution are enabled? (Select two.)

A. configure personal suspect spam scoring

B. configure personal Good and Bad Sender lists

C. configure personal language preferences

D. configure personal content filtering policies

E. configure personal email digest preferences

Correct Answer: BC


Question 7:

How does enabling and configuring sender authentication options in Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 help to protect against spam?

A. by protecting against messages sent from trusted partners

B. by protecting against messages sent using a Sendmail MTA

C. by protecting against messages with a forged message ID

D. by protecting against messages with forged sender domains

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

An administrator needs to determine which policies have triggered for a particular message. Which troubleshooting tool will help to identify issues with policy precedence and actions?

A. Incident Match log

B. Filtering Policy report

C. Filtering Precedence Exception report

D. Message Audit log

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which two report file formats are available in Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 for executive summary reports? (Select two.)

A. CSV

B. PDF

C. DOCX

D. XML

E. HTML

Correct Answer: BE


Question 10:

A Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 administrator needs to prevent bounce attacks. Where should the administrator enable this feature?

A. Bad Senders policy

B. Antivirus policy

C. Directory Harvest Attack policy

D. Antispam policy

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which URL must be accessed to successfully register a newly added Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 license file?

A. aztec.brightmail.com

B. license.symantec.com

C. register.brightmail.com

D. register.symantec.com

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue scanning and delivery of messages?

A. delete the Scanner from the Control Center so that it is no longer used

B. set the Scanner configuration to “Pause message scanning and delivery”

C. set the Scanner configuration to “Do not accept incoming messages”

D. disable the Conduit so that new messages are not accepted

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which two options are valid for pre-configured actions for the language identification feature in Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5? (Select two.)

A. Hold message received in the following languages in the Suspect Spam Quarantine

B. Do not receive mail in the following languages

C. Send notification to the recipient for messages rceived in the following languages.

D. Only receive mail in the following languages

E. Add an X-Bulk header to messages received in the following languages

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

What happens to a message after it has been identified as a suspect virus and placed into the suspect virus quarantine?

A. It is automatically deleted after 7 days.

B. It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.

C. It is stored in the Central Quarantine Server.

D. It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

An organization wants to be extremely aggressive in identifying new and emerging virus threats. Which action should be recommended?

A. Enable the use of rapid release definitions

B. Enable zero-day virus protection

C. Set the virus policy to automatically delete viruses

D. Set LiveUpdate to check for definitions every five minutes

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

A manufacturing company runs three shifts at their Bristol Sales office. These employees currently share desktops in the B_Desktops group. The administrators need to apply different policies/configurations for each shift. Which step should the administrator take in order to implement shift policies after switching the clients to user mode?

A. create three shift policies for the Bristol group

B. create a group for each shift of users in the Bristol group

C. turn on inheritance for all groups in England

D. turn on Active Directory integration

E. modify the B_Desktops policy

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A financial company enforces a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from connecting to the Internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection technology is ineffective on this company\’s workstations?

A. Insight

B. Intrusion Prevention

C. Network Threat Protection

D. Browser Intrusion Prevention

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A company has an application that requires network traffic in both directions to multiple systems at a specific external domain. A firewall rule was created to allow traffic to and from the external domain, but the rule is blocking incoming traffic. What should an administrator enable in the firewall policy to allow this traffic?

A. TCP resequencing

B. Smart DHCP

C. Reverse DNS Lookup

D. Smart WINS

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which option is a characteristic of a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) domain?

A. Each domain has its own management server and database.

B. Every administrator from one domain can view data in other domains.

C. Data for each domain is stored in its own separate SEP database.

D. Domains share the same management server and database.

Correct Answer: D

References: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO80764.html


Question 5:

An administrator selects the Backup files before attempting to repair the Remediations option in the Auto-Protect policies. Which two actions occur when a virus is detected? (Select two.)

A. replace the file with a place holder

B. check the reputation

C. store in Quarantine folder

D. send the file to Symantec Insight

E. encrypt the file

Correct Answer: CE


Question 6:

A threat was detected by Auto-Protect on a client system.

Which command can an administrator run to determine whether additional threats exist?

A. Restart Client Computer

B. Update Content and Scan

C. Enable Network Threat Protection

D. Enable Download Insight

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which Symantec Endpoint Protection Management (SEPM) database option is the default for deployments of fewer than 1,000 clients?

A. EmbeddeD. Using the Sybase SQL Anywhere database that comes with the product

B. On SEPM: Installing Microsoft SQL on the same server as the SEPM

C. External to SEPM: Using a preexisting Microsoft SQL server in the environment

D. EmbeddeD. Using the Microsoft SQL database that comes with the product

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

A company plans to install six Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers (SEPMs) spread evenly across two sites. The administrator needs to direct replication activity to SEPM3 server in Site 1 and SEPM4 in Site 2. Which two actions should the administrator take to direct replication activity to SEPM3 and SEPM4? (Select two.)

A. Install SEPM3 and SEPM4 after the other SEPMs

B. Install the SQL Server databases on SEPM3 and SEPM4

C. Ensure SEPM3 and SEPM4 are defined as the top priority server in the Site Settings

D. Ensure SEPM3 and SEPM4 are defined as remote servers in the replication partner configuration

E. Install IT Analytics on SEPM3 and SEPM4

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

A large-scale virus attack is occurring and a notification condition is configured to send an email whenever viruses infect five computers on the network. A Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator has set a one hour damper period for that notification condition.

How many notifications does the administrator receive after 30 computers are infected in two hours?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 6

D. 15

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An administrator is reviewing an Infected Clients Report and notices that a client repeatedly shows the same malware detection. Although the client remediates the files, the infection continues to display in the logs. Which two functions should be enabled to automate enhanced remediation of a detected threat and its related side effects? (Select two.)

A. Risk Tracer

B. Terminate Processes Automatically

C. Early Launch Anti-Malware Driver

D. Stop Service Automatically

E. Stop and Reload AutoProtect

Correct Answer: BD


Question 11:

How are Insight results stored?

A. Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

B. Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

C. Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Client

D. Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Client

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator must block traffic from an attacking computer for a specific time period. Where should the administrator adjust the time to block the attacking computer?

A. in the firewall policy, under Protection and Stealth

B. in the firewall policy, under Built in Rules

C. in the group policy, under External Communication Settings

D. in the group policy, under Communication Settings

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

In the virus and Spyware Protection policy, an administrator sets the First action to Clean risk and sets If first action fails to Delete risk. Which two factors should the administrator consider? (Select two.)

A. The deleted file may still be in the Recycle Bin.

B. IT Analytics may keep a copy of the file for investigation.

C. False positives may delete legitimate files.

D. Insight may back up the file before sending it to Symantec.

E. A copy of the threat may still be in the quarantine.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 14:

Where in the Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) management console will a SEP administrator find the option to allow all users to enable and disable the client firewall?

A. Client User Interface Control Settings

B. Overview in Firewall Policy

C. Settings in Intrusion Prevention Policy

D. System Lockdown in Group Policy

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.symantec.com/connect/forums/disable-protection-endpoint-protection-manager


Question 15:

Which action must a Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator take before creating custom Intrusion Prevention signatures?

A. Change the custom signature order

B. Create a Custom Intrusion Prevention Signature library

C. Define signature variables

D. Enable signature logging

Correct Answer: B

References: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO80877.html


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QUESTION 1

Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network Services? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless
B. Routing
C. TrustSec
D. MediaNet
E. Swicthing
F. EnergyWise
G. Next-Gen WAN
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 2

Which option cause deep-packet examination to determine the specific nature of an attack?
A. Network IPS
B. Netflow collector
C. Stateful firewall
D. Syslog server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

What is a characteristic of campus core design?
A. Fast transport
B. Security
C. Summarization
D. Redistribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

A company has dark fiber between headquarters and its data center. It is presently configured as a 10GbE connection. Network utilization shows high utilization on the connection. What technology can be implemented to increase capacity without acquiring another circuit?
A. MPLS B. DWDM
C. VPLS
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6

An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application communicate using IPv6?
A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

When considering the three VoIP design models – single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite – which question would help to eliminate one of the options?
A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model. To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private VLAN?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. Core
B. Aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. Distribution Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment.
What protocol allows for this?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core?
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI model is used to start the design?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. Access layer aggregation
B. Route summarization
C. Network trust boundary
D. Next-hop redundancy E. Layer-2 switching
F. Port security G. Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 23
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? (Choose three.)
A. Goals
B. Budget
C. User needs
D. Locations
E. Policies
F. Tasks Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 25
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 26
Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same AS? (Choose two.)
A. Community
B. Router reflectors
C. Local preferences
D. Confederations
E. Atomic Aggregate
F. MED Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 27
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)
A. Staff input
B. Visual inventory
C. Network audit
D. Traffic analysis
E. Server statistics Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 28
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco wireless controller?
A. config create interface
B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It enables NIC teaming
B. It removes STP dependency
C. It increases scalability
D. It decreases convergence Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. VTP transparent mode
B. BPDU guard
C. Root Guard
D. Portfast
E. Trunk mode Correct Answer: BD …