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Question 1:

What are two requirements for configuring disk-based I/O fencing on supported storage arrays? (Select two.)

A. Cluster File System Option enabled

B. Arrays with SCSI3-PR enabled

C. A minimum of two private heartbeat connections

D. LUNs visible within the vxdisk list output

E. LUNs validated with the hacf -verify command

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) includes a disk-based I/O fencing mechanism.

Thinking specifically about data disks, which two cluster configuration requirements must be met to implement this? (Select two.)

A. The application using the disks must be managed by a VCS Application resource type.

B. The disks must be in a Veritas Volume Manager disk group.

C. The service group containing the disks must include an IP resource.

D. The disks must be managed by a VCS DiskGroup resource type.

E. The disks must contain at least one *.dbf file.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

Only two local disks suitable for use as coordinator disks are available for a local muti-node cluster. Adding a Coordination Point (CP) Server with which two properties would maximize the resiliency of the I/ O fencing configuration? (Select two.)

A. One-node CP server cluster with GAB and LLT configured

B. One-node CP server cluster with only LLT configured

C. Second network connection to the CP server cluster

D. Multi-node CP server cluster

E. I/O fencing on the CP server cluster

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

Which Network Protect feature is a system administrator unable to configure?

A. Ability to copy files

B. Ability to restore files

C. Location of quarantined files

D. Content of the file marker

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

What should be considered before enabling the Preventing Concurrency Violation (ProPCV) attribute in a service group?

A. The MonitorProgram attribute must be configured for the Application resource type.

B. The MonitorProcesses attribute must be configured for the Application resource type.

C. The Mode value for the IMF attribute of the Application type resource is set to 1.

D. The ProPCV attribute is prevented from being changed when the service group is active.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

How is Intelligent Monitoring Framework configured?

A. It is automatically configured but only on supported agents.

B. It is automatically configured on all agents.

C. It needs to be manually configured on each agent.

D. It needs to be manually configured on each cluster node.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What happens when a DLP Agent is unable to connect to its preferred Endpoint Server?

A. If any detection server in the system is running, the agent automatically connects to it after a period of time.

B. If any Endpoint Server is running, the agent automatically connects to it after a period of time.

C. If any Endpoint Server is running, and if the agent is configured to recognize it, the agent connects to it after a period of time.

D. If any detection server is running, and if the agent is configured to recognize it, the agent connects to it after a period of time.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which statement describes a DLP Agent encryption feature?

A. The key size is standard and unconfigurable.

B. The key is randomly generated for the agent store.

C. The system administrator can generate a unique authentication key.

D. DLP Agent-to-server communication uses Secure Socket Layer (SSL).

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Refer to the following service group example:

group websg (

SystemList = { sym1 = 0, sym2 = 1 }

AutoStart = 0

AutoStartList = { sym2 }

)

DiskGroup webdg (

DiskGroup = webdg

)

IP webip (

Device = eth0

Address = “169.254.128.12”

NetMask = “255.255.255.0”

)

Mount webmnt (

MountPoint = “/web1”

BlockDevice = “/dev/vx/dsk/webdg/webvol”

FSType = vxfs

MountOpt = rw

FsckOpt = “-y”

)

NIC webnic (

Device = eth0

)

Application webproc (

MonitorProgram = “/usr/local/bin/web -monitor”

StartProgram = “/usr/local/bin/web -start”

StopProgram = “/usr/local/bin/web -stop”

)

webip requires webproc

webproc requires webmnt

webip requires webnic

webmnt requires webdg

Which resource will start online last?

A. webip

B. webmnt

C. webproc

D. webdg

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

System capacity and service group load are the main components for which FailOverPolicy?

A. Load

B. Order

C. Limit

D. Capacity

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which Veritas Cluster Server utility can be used to prototype cluster logic using minimal hardware?

A. Simulator

B. AgentServer

C. Fencing

D. AgentTester

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What is a characteristic of the Veritas Cluster Server communication stack?

A. The HAD processes propagates information to other nodes by way of agents.

B. Agents communicate resource status information with HAD.

C. LLT determines cluster membership by monitoring heartbeats over GAB.

D. Agents can communicate with each other directly over GAB.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which two items are required to replace a coordinator disk while the cluster is online? (Select two.)

A. Replace the LUN and create the disk as a Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) Disk

B. Replace the LUN and create the disk as a Logical Volume Manager (LVM) Disk

C. Replace the LUN and create the disk as either a VxVM or LVM Disk

D. Run the installvcs -fencing command to replace the removed LUNs

E. Run the vxfenadm command to replace the removed LUNs

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

An administrator stopped Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) on the sym1 node to remove it from the cluster. When attempting to do this with the hasys -delete command from sym2, an error message is displayed.

What is the likely cause of this error?

A. One or more SystemList attributes still contains sym1.

B. VCS must be completely shut down on all nodes.

C. The vxfen daemon on sym1 is still running.

D. The GAB daemon on sym1 is still running.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is an advantage of using a Dashboard report?

A. Incident reponders can execute Smart Responses from them.

B. They allow incidents to be viewed across multiple products.

C. They can be used as work queues for incident responders.

D. Incident responders can see the history of each incident.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the disk access name for the device displayed in the vxdisk list output?

A. mydg01 B. c2t0d0

C. mydg

D. c1t0d0

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What are two benefits of using the FileSnap feature? (Select two.)

A. Instant snapshot creation of the same file

B. Instant snapshot creation of the same volume

C. Instant snapshot creation of the same file system

D. Instant snapshot creation of the same disk

E. Instant snapshot creation of the same virtual machine boot image

Correct Answer: AE


Question 3:

Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)

A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default

B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance

C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis

D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access

E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg. There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be affected for planning purposes.

Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?

A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg

B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12

C. vxdg list appdg webdg

D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

How does the LDAP synchronization process treat mail-enabled groups?

A. as a user list

B. as a distribution list

C. as domain groups

D. as an LDAP list

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the layout of the volume?

A. concat-mirror

B. mirror-stripe

C. mirror-concat

D. stripe-mirror

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored volume?

A. nplex

B. nmirror

C. plex

D. ndisk

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

What does the TEMPRMSD plex state indicate?

A. The plex is synchronized.

B. The plex is removed.

C. The plex is detaching.

D. The plex is synchronizing.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which three are valid configuration options when working with compliance folders? (Select three.)

A. the format of the notification email

B. the incident archive tag

C. the retention time for compliance incidents

D. the maximum size for all compliance folders

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 10:

Which two are reports provided by Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)

A. Executive Summary

B. Reputation Summary

C. Hardware Utilization Summary

D. IM Compliance Summary

E. Capacity Planning Summary

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

Which Veritas File System (VxFS) I/O error policy will place the file system into a degraded state upon a metadata write failure?

A. nodisable

B. wdisable

C. mwdisable

D. mdisable

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

When performing a dry run for deduplication, fsdedupadm may take a \’-o threshold=percentage\’ argument.

This argument will initiate an actual deduplication run when the metric reaches which given value?

A. the percentage of file system disk usage

B. the percentage of expected savings

C. the percentage of duplicate file names

D. the percentage of the dry run completed

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which would receive a spam verdict from Symantec?

A. an unwanted account statement from an recipient\’s financial institution

B. unsolicited email

C. an email that has seven instances of the term \’viagra\’

D. unsolicited commercial bulk email

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

What is the first action an administrator must take when configuring SmartTier on a newly installed Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX server?

A. create placement classes

B. create a volume set

C. turn on the file change log (FCL)

D. define placement policies

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What is a key prerequisite for enabling the end-user Email Spam Quarantine feature?

A. selecting the \’Delete messages sent to unresolved email addresses\’ option

B. importing a list of allowed users on the Quarantine Setup page

C. defining an LDAP source for synchronization

D. defining an LDAP source for authentication

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

An administrator needs to prevent users on all client systems from performing user-directed restores while ensuring they are able to view the contents of all previous backup images. What should the administrator configure to accomplish this goal?

A. enable the Master Server Host Property – Browse timeframe for restores

B. enable the Master Server Host Property for clients listed in the Client Attribute – Allow browse

C. de-select the “Allow server file writes” parameter in the Host Properties of the Master Server

D. de-select the “Allow client restore” parameter in the Host Properties of the Master Server

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

An administrator wants to use a client as the VMware backup host. Where is the name of the VMware backup host entered in NetBackup?

A. Access Management > Virtual Machine Servers

B. Host Properties > Clients > VMware Access Hosts

C. Host Properties > Master Server > VMware Access Hosts

D. Media and Device Management > Credentials > Virtual Machine Servers

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with additional characters.

How should an administrator enable NetBackup 7.6.1 to use the same characters as before the firmware upgrade occurred?

A. update the Media ID Generation setting

B. update Media settings

C. update Device mappings

D. update the Barcode Rules setting

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which volume pool must be manually created in NetBackup?

A. NetBackup

B. DataStore

C. Scratch

D. CatalogBackup

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

An administrator has a backup policy with the following attributes: 5 paths listed in the Backup Selections list 3 clients listed in the Clients list Allow multiple data streams is selected Max Jobs per Client value set to 4 How many jobs go Active when the job is started, excluding parent jobs?

A. 8

B. 9

C. 12

D. 15

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

A policy is created using the Standard policy type. The default settings are used. Linux hosts s1 and s2 are added in the client list and ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES is specified in the Backup Selection.

Host s1 has the mount points listed below:

/

/opt

/usr

/usr/home

Host s2 has the mount points listed below: / /proc /tmp /usr How many streams will be created when the policy runs for both clients?

A. two

B. four

C. five

D. eight

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An administrator needs to store secure tape copies of protected data to an offsite location. How can the administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create detailed reports?

A. encrypt the tapes using software encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automatic ejects and create reports

B. enable the encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

D. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which scenario accurately describes the creation of a full synthetic backup using tape?

A. a single drive can be used for both the read and write of the backup

B. a separate read drive and write drive can be used on the same Media Server

C. a read and write drive can be used on different Media Servers

D. a disk storage unit must be used prior to copying the backup to tape

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is the image removal behavior for relocated images from a disk staging storage unit when the high water mark is reached during a backup?

A. NetBackup removes the oldest images until the low water mark is reached.

B. NetBackup removes images alphabetically until the low water mark is reached.

C. NetBackup removes the largest images until the low water mark is reached.

D. NetBackup removes images with the lowest rank data classification until the low water mark is reached.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

The administrator of a large bank needs to preserve financial information for an extended period of time. The bank\’s NetBackup 7.6.1 catalog is now over 800GB in size, causing the catalog backups to contend for resources with production system backups. How can the administrator shorten the time needed to back up the catalog?

A. use the NetBackup 7.6.1 Agent for Symantec Enterprise Vault to perform an online archive of the catalog

B. create a catalog archive policy and execute it from the command line using the bpcatarc command

C. use the NetBackup 7.6.1 client-side deduplication feature to shorten the time it takes to perform a catalog backup

D. back up the catalog by scheduling an online Sybase database backup policy to allow the backup to run without contending for resources

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

In which order should an administrator perform upgrades to a major release in a NetBackup environment?

A. Master Server, OpsCenter Server, Media Server, Clients

B. OpsCenter Server, Master Server, Media Server, Clients

C. Master Server, Media Server, OpsCenter Server, Clients

D. Master Server, Media Server, Clients, OpsCenter Server

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which information is validated during an image verification operation?

A. data on the client is validated with data on the volume

B. data on the client is validated with data in the NetBackup catalog

C. data on the volume is validated with data in the NetBackup catalog

D. data on the client and the volume is validated with data in the NetBackup catalog

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The following storage lifecycle policy was used to back up data from a client. Storage Lifecycle Policy Backup to AdvancedDisk Duplication to tape Duplication to AdvancedDisk How should an administrator restore data from the tape using NetBackup?

A. from the BAR GUI, select the tape backup to restore from

B. use bpduplicate command to promote copy 1 to the primary copy

C. from the NetBackup Administration console, promote copy 1 to the primary copy

D. from the NetBackup Administration console, promote copy 2 to the primary copy

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which operation compares the contents of an image to the NetBackup catalog?

A. Verify

B. Duplicate

C. Import

D. Rehydrate

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

The MSDP catalog on a Media Server has become corrupted. Which two methods are available to bring the MSDP pool back online? (Select two.)

A. restore the MSDP catalog from the NetBackup catalog backup

B. recover the MSDP catalog from the MSDP catalog backup

C. repair the MSDP catalog using the crchk tool

D. restore the MSDP catalog from an MSDP catalogshadow copy

E. repair the MSDP catalog using the recoverCR tool

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight Alert Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running. Which policy should the administrator configure?

A. Malware Blocking policy

B. Application Metering policy

C. Custom Inventory policy

D. Software Inventory policy

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application. During deployment, the administrator determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be changed without modifying the MSI. The administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package. Which policies would be affected when the default install command line of a software package is modified in the Software Catalog?

A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer

B. policies that leverage Software Discovery

C. policies currently referencing the modified entry

D. policies referencing staged software updates

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new application. What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?

A. Detection Rule

B. Applicability Rule

C. Basic Inventory

D. Software Filter

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called “Solitaire 2099” has been installed on company desktops. The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the company standard browser toolbar and needs to be removed immediately. The administrator has also been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that they can receive a private email about the situation. Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)

A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an application.B.Inventory Solution automatically associates software titles to users.

B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.

C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application isexecuted.

D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1? (Select two.)

A. Service Desk

B. CMDB Solution

C. pcAnywhere

D. Wise Package Studio Professional

E. Deployment Solution

Correct Answer: CE


Question 6:

What is a benefit of using the Software Library?

A. It offers a single, virtual location of multiple physical locations for simple access and management of software packages.

B. It offers a single, physical location on the network where all software packages are stored for distribution.

C. It offers a single, physical location where end-users can access software to be installed to their local system.

D. It offers a single, virtual location where applications can be installed as virtual layers for a scheduled, limited timeperiod.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A system administrator needs to review the installation status of the agent plug-ins that have been enabled for a specific computer. In which two places will the administrator find this information? (Select two.)

A. the Policies view on the Symantec Management Console

B. the Computer view on the Symantec Management Console

C. the My Portal page on the Symantec Management Console

D. the Software Delivery tab of the Symantec Management Agent

E. the Jobs/Tasks tab on the Symantec Management Agent

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

A system administrator logs on to a managed computer to update the agent policies for software delivery. Which action should the administrator perform to refresh the policies?

A. Right-click the Symantec Management Agent, select Settings and update the Sent Basic Inventory Date andTime.

B. Right-click the Symantec Management Agent, select Settings, and Update the Configuration Requested/Changed, Date andTime.

C. Right-click the Symantec Management Agent and select Software Update Configuration.

D. Right-click the Symantec Management Agent and select Task tab and Update the Configuration Requested/Changed, Date andTime.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What are two attributes of an entry within the Software Catalog? (Select two.)

A. command lines

B. download location

C. installation path

D. attribute rules

E. applicability rules

Correct Answer: AE


Question 10:

A help desk technician is responding to a printing problem and suspects the problem is the Windows print spooler service. Using Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1, how can the technician verify that the print spooler service is actively running before contacting the user?

A. Real-Time System Manager

B. Resource Manager

C. Symantec Remote Assistance

D. Inventory Solution

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which criteria must be met before a Software Update policy can be created through the Patch Remediation Center?

A. The number in the Updates column must equal the number in the Downloaded column.

B. Computers must be discovered that require the particular softwareupdate.

C. Software updates must first be downloaded from the Symantecwebsite.

D. Software updates must be marked as ready to install in the Patch Remediation Center.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?

A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.

B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.

C. It gathers detailed information about application files.

D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which items must be specified to minimize duplication of data and minimize processing on the Notification Server when manually adding a software resource to the Software Catalog?

A. Product Name, Software Product, and Language

B. Product Name, Version, and Manufacturer

C. Product Name, Version, and Software Product

D. Product Name, Version, and Language

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

An administrator needs to create an exact image of a computer using Deployment Solution 7.1. Which type of imaging task should the administrator use?

A. Capture Disk Image task

B. Backup Disk Image task

C. Capture Personality task

D. Restore Backup Image task

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which two types of user profiles can PC Transplant capture? (Select two.)

A. Mac users

B. Local Windows users

C. Linux users

D. Windows domain users

E. Novell Netware users

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

Which two optimized duplication methods are supported between media server deduplication pools? (Select two.)

A. media server deduplication pool optimized duplication within the same domain

B. auto image replication

C. PureDisk storage pool optimized duplication to media server deduplication pool

D. replication director

E. media server deduplication pool optimized duplication to any storage unit group

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

Which two characteristics of a backup are defined in the storage unit configuration? (Select two.)

A. which master server is used

B. which media server is used

C. which storage device is used

D. which volume group is used

E. which volume pool is used

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

What is a benefit of Symantec NetBackup Accelerator?

A. faster full backups by eliminating the need to read the entire file system

B. faster processing of media server deduplication pool fingerprints

C. faster processing by the Symantec NetBackup EMM database

D. faster full backups by synthesizing existing full and incremental backups

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as before the firmware upgrade occurred?

A. update the Media ID Generation setting

B. update the Robot Type mapping

C. update the Media Type mapping

D. update the Barcode Rules setting

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured barcode rule?

A. Symantec NetBackup pool

B. Scratch pool

C. Default pool

D. None pool

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Auto Image Replication is being used to replicate New York backups to London. The New York backups have completed. What is the next step?

A. image duplicated to London using a storage lifecycle policy to a Disk Staging Storage Unit

B. image duplicated to London using a Disk Staging Storage Unit

C. image duplicated to London using a storage lifecycle policy to a media server deduplication pool

D. image duplicated to London using Symantec NetBackup Vault to tape

Correct Answer: C