[PDF and VCE] Free Geekcert Symantec 250-253 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

This is a note. Please give me your attention if you are preparing for your Symantec Jan 11,2022 Latest 250-253 free download exam. It is really a tough task to pass SCS Latest 250-253 QAs exam. However, Geekcert will help you on that with the most comprehensive PDF and VCEs of the latest SCS Latest 250-253 pdf dumps exam questions, covering each and every aspect of SCS Newest 250-253 pdf dumps Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix exam curriculum.

Geekcert 250-253 certification dumps : oracle, ibm and many more. Geekcert | 250-253 certification materials | videos | study guides. Geekcert 250-253 certification study guides. Geekcert 250-253 certification dumps : oracle, ibm and many more. Geekcert test prep guides to pass your 250-253 exam. pass 250-253 exams with Geekcert exam files.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 250-253 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/250-253.html

The following are the 250-253 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 250-253 dumps.Although questions are from 250-253 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the 250-253 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

What are two requirements for configuring disk-based I/O fencing on supported storage arrays? (Select two.)

A. Cluster File System Option enabled

B. Arrays with SCSI3-PR enabled

C. A minimum of two private heartbeat connections

D. LUNs visible within the vxdisk list output

E. LUNs validated with the hacf -verify command

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) includes a disk-based I/O fencing mechanism.

Thinking specifically about data disks, which two cluster configuration requirements must be met to implement this? (Select two.)

A. The application using the disks must be managed by a VCS Application resource type.

B. The disks must be in a Veritas Volume Manager disk group.

C. The service group containing the disks must include an IP resource.

D. The disks must be managed by a VCS DiskGroup resource type.

E. The disks must contain at least one *.dbf file.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

Only two local disks suitable for use as coordinator disks are available for a local muti-node cluster. Adding a Coordination Point (CP) Server with which two properties would maximize the resiliency of the I/ O fencing configuration? (Select two.)

A. One-node CP server cluster with GAB and LLT configured

B. One-node CP server cluster with only LLT configured

C. Second network connection to the CP server cluster

D. Multi-node CP server cluster

E. I/O fencing on the CP server cluster

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

Which Network Protect feature is a system administrator unable to configure?

A. Ability to copy files

B. Ability to restore files

C. Location of quarantined files

D. Content of the file marker

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

What should be considered before enabling the Preventing Concurrency Violation (ProPCV) attribute in a service group?

A. The MonitorProgram attribute must be configured for the Application resource type.

B. The MonitorProcesses attribute must be configured for the Application resource type.

C. The Mode value for the IMF attribute of the Application type resource is set to 1.

D. The ProPCV attribute is prevented from being changed when the service group is active.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

How is Intelligent Monitoring Framework configured?

A. It is automatically configured but only on supported agents.

B. It is automatically configured on all agents.

C. It needs to be manually configured on each agent.

D. It needs to be manually configured on each cluster node.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What happens when a DLP Agent is unable to connect to its preferred Endpoint Server?

A. If any detection server in the system is running, the agent automatically connects to it after a period of time.

B. If any Endpoint Server is running, the agent automatically connects to it after a period of time.

C. If any Endpoint Server is running, and if the agent is configured to recognize it, the agent connects to it after a period of time.

D. If any detection server is running, and if the agent is configured to recognize it, the agent connects to it after a period of time.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which statement describes a DLP Agent encryption feature?

A. The key size is standard and unconfigurable.

B. The key is randomly generated for the agent store.

C. The system administrator can generate a unique authentication key.

D. DLP Agent-to-server communication uses Secure Socket Layer (SSL).

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Refer to the following service group example:

group websg (

SystemList = { sym1 = 0, sym2 = 1 }

AutoStart = 0

AutoStartList = { sym2 }

)

DiskGroup webdg (

DiskGroup = webdg

)

IP webip (

Device = eth0

Address = “169.254.128.12”

NetMask = “255.255.255.0”

)

Mount webmnt (

MountPoint = “/web1”

BlockDevice = “/dev/vx/dsk/webdg/webvol”

FSType = vxfs

MountOpt = rw

FsckOpt = “-y”

)

NIC webnic (

Device = eth0

)

Application webproc (

MonitorProgram = “/usr/local/bin/web -monitor”

StartProgram = “/usr/local/bin/web -start”

StopProgram = “/usr/local/bin/web -stop”

)

webip requires webproc

webproc requires webmnt

webip requires webnic

webmnt requires webdg

Which resource will start online last?

A. webip

B. webmnt

C. webproc

D. webdg

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

System capacity and service group load are the main components for which FailOverPolicy?

A. Load

B. Order

C. Limit

D. Capacity

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which Veritas Cluster Server utility can be used to prototype cluster logic using minimal hardware?

A. Simulator

B. AgentServer

C. Fencing

D. AgentTester

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What is a characteristic of the Veritas Cluster Server communication stack?

A. The HAD processes propagates information to other nodes by way of agents.

B. Agents communicate resource status information with HAD.

C. LLT determines cluster membership by monitoring heartbeats over GAB.

D. Agents can communicate with each other directly over GAB.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which two items are required to replace a coordinator disk while the cluster is online? (Select two.)

A. Replace the LUN and create the disk as a Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) Disk

B. Replace the LUN and create the disk as a Logical Volume Manager (LVM) Disk

C. Replace the LUN and create the disk as either a VxVM or LVM Disk

D. Run the installvcs -fencing command to replace the removed LUNs

E. Run the vxfenadm command to replace the removed LUNs

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

An administrator stopped Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) on the sym1 node to remove it from the cluster. When attempting to do this with the hasys -delete command from sym2, an error message is displayed.

What is the likely cause of this error?

A. One or more SystemList attributes still contains sym1.

B. VCS must be completely shut down on all nodes.

C. The vxfen daemon on sym1 is still running.

D. The GAB daemon on sym1 is still running.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is an advantage of using a Dashboard report?

A. Incident reponders can execute Smart Responses from them.

B. They allow incidents to be viewed across multiple products.

C. They can be used as work queues for incident responders.

D. Incident responders can see the history of each incident.

Correct Answer: B


Latest Geekcert ST0-91W Exam ST0-91W Dumps 100% Free Download

This dump is 100% valid to pass Symantec STS-Partner-Accreditation Jan 11,2022 Hotest ST0-91W vce exam. The only tips is please do not just memorize the questions and answers, you need to get through understanding of it because the question changed a little in the real exam. Follow the instructions in the Geekcert STS-Partner-Accreditation Newest ST0-91W practice Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows(STS) PDF and VCEs. All Geekcert materials will help you pass your Symantec STS-Partner-Accreditation exam successfully.

free and latest Geekcert exam questions | all Geekcert latest microsoft, vmware, comptia, cisco,hp ,citrix and some other hot exams practice tests and questions and answers free download! Geekcert – Symantec dumps, braindumps, certification ST0-91W exam dumps. Geekcert | pass your Geekcert certification exam easily now!

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest ST0-91W preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/ST0-91W.html

The following are the ST0-91W free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our ST0-91W dumps.These questions are from ST0-91W free dumps. All questions in ST0-91W dumps are from the latest ST0-91W real exams.

Question 1:

Which statement best describes your ability to back up and recover Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalogs?

A. I can back up and recover Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalogs WITHOUT assistance.

B. I can back up and recover Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalogs with MINIMAL assistance (e.g., referring to documentation).

C. I can back up and recover Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalogs with SIGNIFICANT assistance (e.g., calling support or working with a mentor).

D. I am familiar with how to back up and recover Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalogs but have NO field experience.

E. I am NOT familiar with how to back up and recover Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalogs.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which statement best describes your ability to monitor and report on Symantec NetBackup 7.0?

A. I can monitor and report on Symantec NetBackup 7.0 WITHOUT assistance.

B. I can monitor and report on Symantec NetBackup 7.0 with MINIMAL assistance (e.g., referring to documentation).

C. I can monitor and report on Symantec NetBackup 7.0 with SIGNIFICANT assistance (e.g., calling support or working with a mentor).

D. I am familiar with how to monitor and report on Symantec NetBackup 7.0 but have NO field experience.

E. I am NOT familiar with how to monitor and report on Symantec NetBackup 7.0.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which statement best describes your ability to troubleshoot common problems in Symantec NetBackup 7.0?

A. I can troubleshoot common problems in Symantec NetBackup 7.0 WITHOUT assistance.

B. I can troubleshoot common problems in Symantec NetBackup 7.0 with MINIMAL assistance (e.g., referring to documentation).

C. I can troubleshoot common problems in Symantec NetBackup 7.0 with SIGNIFICANT assistance (e.g., calling support or working with mentor).

D. I am familiar with how to troubleshoot common problems in Symantec NetBackup 7.0 but have NO practical experience.

E. I am NOT familiar with how to troubleshoot common problems in Symantec NetBackup 7.0.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

An administrator needs to back up a file system with millions of files in the shortest amount of time. Which option should be used?

A. enable “Compression” in the policy

B. use the FlashBackup policy type

C. enable “Collect True Image Restore” in the policy

D. use the AFS policy type

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

In which two areas of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 is multiplexing configured? (Select two.)

A. master server host properties

B. storage unit group configuration

C. policy schedules attributes

D. storage unit configuration

E. media server host properties

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which information does the Activity Monitor display?

A. volume groups

B. queued jobs

C. administrative console reports

D. media logs

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture. Which system functions as the top tier?

A. media server

B. enterprise client

C. client

D. master server

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

An administrator is having difficulty determining the status of a drive and wants to manually load a tape into the drive. Which command should the administrator use to accomplish this?

A. bpmedia

B. robtest

C. vmoprcmd

D. vmcheckxxx

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is required to update clustered systems using Symantec NetBackup 7.0 LiveUpdate?

A. One LiveUpdate policy must be created per Symantec NetBackup domain.

B. Unlimited jobs must be used per policy.

C. All cluster node names must be entered in the LiveUpdate policy.

D. All virtual node names must be entered in the LiveUpdate policy.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which operation can be performed against all active and queued jobs when using the Activity Monitor from the administration console?

A. cancel all jobs

B. suspend all jobs

C. checkpoint all jobs

D. delete all jobs

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A tape drive under robotic control is available to Symantec NetBackup 7.0. An administrator needs to make it unavailable for maintenance, without affecting other drives in the tape library. How should the administrator make the tape drive temporarily unavailable for backups, using the administration console?

A. in the Device Monitor, right-click the drive and select Down Drive

B. under Devices -> Media Servers, right-click the media server and select Deactivate

C. under Devices -> Drives, right-click the drive and select Deactivate

D. select the appropriate storage unit and reduce the “Maximum concurrent write drives” setting by 1

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

What is the default media server SCSI reserve setting?

A. SCSI Persistent reserve

B. SPC-2 SCSI reserve

C. SPC-3 SCSI reserve

D. SPC-4 SCSI reserve

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

In Symantec NetBackup 7.0 there are currently three storage units (STU-A, STU-B, and STU- C). Only STU-A is set as On Demand Only. Three policies have been created as follows:

PolicyA is set up to use storage unit STU-A. PolicyB is set up as an “Any Available” storage unit. PolicyC is set up to use STU-C. If STU-B fills up, and STU-A and STU-C still have available space, what happens to future backups for PolicyB?

A. Backups will use STU-A.

B. Backups will use STU-C.

C. Backups will remain queued waiting for available space on STU-B.

D. Backups will fail with an error message indicating that media is unavailable.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Multiple data streams are configured and there is a policy with four items in the backup selections list. Storage units with multiple tape drives are set up to “allow multiple concurrent write drives.” Only one job is going active at a time. What must be set to a value greater than 1 to allow all four streams to go active concurrently?

A. the master server “Maximum jobs per client” host property

B. the master server “Maximum backup copies” host property

C. the storage unit “Maximum streams per drive” attribute

D. the tape drive “Media multiplexing” property

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

By default, how often does the Schedule Backup Attempt property cause Symantec NetBackup 7.0 to retry backups?

A. once in 8 hours

B. twice in 12 hours

C. once in 24 hours

D. twice in 24 hours

Correct Answer: B


[Latest Version] Free Geekcert Symantec 250-437 PDF Download with 100% Pass Guarantee

This dump is 100% valid to pass Symantec Symantec Other Certification Hotest 250-437 study guide exam. The only tips is please do not just memorize the questions and answers, you need to get through understanding of it because the question changed a little in the real exam. Follow the instructions in the Geekcert Symantec Other Certification Jan 11,2022 Latest 250-437 vce Administration of Symantec CloudSOC – version 1 PDF and VCEs. All Geekcert materials will help you pass your Symantec Symantec Other Certification exam successfully.

Geekcert expert team is will help you to get all 250-437 certifications easily. Geekcert free certification 250-437 exam | Geekcert practice 250-437 exams | Geekcert test 250-437 questions. free 250-437 exam sample questions, 250-437 exam practice online, 250-437 exam practice on mobile phone, 250-437 pdf, 250-437 books, 250-437 pdf file download!

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 250-437 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/250-437.html

The following are the 250-437 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 250-437 dumps.The following questions and answers are from the latest 250-437 free dumps. It will help you understand the validity of the latest 250-437 dumps.

Question 1:

How does the Audit module get data?

A. Firewalls and proxies

B. Cloud application APIs

C. CloudSOC gateway

D. Manual uploads

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which CloudSOC module(s) use firewalls and proxies as data sources?

A. Detect, Protect, and Investigate

B. Detect, Protect, Investigate, and Securlets

C. Audit and Investigate

D. Audit

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.niwis.com/downloads/Symantec/Symantec_CloudSOC.pdf


Question 3:

How should an administrator handle a cloud application that fails to meet compliance requirements, but the business need outweighs the risk?

A. Sanction

B. Monitor

C. Block

D. Review

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Which modules are used in the use case “Determine optimal cloud application adoption based on business risk and cost of ownership”?

A. Audit and Protect

B. Audit

C. Detect, Protect, and Investigate

D. Protect, Investigate, and Securlets

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

What data source types does Audit support?

A. SSH, FTP, Remote desktop

B. Web upload, SFTP, S3

C. PDF, DOC, XLS

D. APIs

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What module should an administrator use to create policies that restrict users from sharing data in unsafe ways?

A. Securlets

B. Audit

C. Protect

D. Detect

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What CloudSOC module should an administrator use to identify and remediate malicious behavior within cloud applications?

A. Audit

B. Securlets

C. Detect

D. Investigate

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. Which module(s) use the CloudSOC gateway as a data source?

A. Audit

B. Detect and Protect

C. Detect, Protect, and Investigate

D. Detect, Protect, Investigate, and Securlets

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What type of solution should an administrator implement to secure the way users interact with cloud applications?

A. Intrusion Detection System/Intrusion Protection System (IDS/IPS)

B. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)

C. Web application firewalls

D. Proxies

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which detector will trigger if a user attempts a series of invalid logins within a specific time period?

A. Threats based

B. Sequence based

C. Threshold based

D. Behavior based

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What module should an administrator use to create policies with one click, and send them to the Protect Module?

A. Detect

B. Investigate

C. Audit

D. Securlet

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What module can an administrator use to connect certain cloud applications to CloudSOC via APIs, and have complete visibility into the content being shared in those cloud applications?

A. Investigate

B. Detect

C. Protect

D. Securlets

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. What does this Access Monitoring policy do?

A. Notify the owner when an email is sent

B. Send a ticket when a user with a ThreatScore higher than 80 performs an invalid login

C. Notify the admin when a folder is deleted by a user with a ThreatScore higher than 80

D. Create a ticket when a user with a ThreatScore higher than 80 sends an email

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

What are three (3) main risks that CloudSOC solves in cloud applications?

A. Phishing, Data Security, Threat Protection

B. Cloud Visibility, Data Security, Threat Protection

C. Cloud Visibility, Data Security, Web Scanning

D. Phishing, Cloud Visibility, Threat Protection

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.symantec.com/products/cloud-application-security-cloudsoc


Question 15:

Which CloudSOC module is similar to an Intrusion Protection System (IPS)/Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

A. Protect

B. Investigate

C. Detect

D. Audit

Correct Answer: A


Pass Guarantee 250-254 Exam By Taking Geekcert New Symantec 250-254 VCE And PDF Braindumps

We promise that you should not worry about Jan 11,2022 Newest 250-254 QAs exam at all. We, Geekcert, are here to provide guidance to help you pass the SCS Symantec Cluster Server for UNIX Latest 250-254 pdf dumps Administration of Symantec Cluster Server 6.1 for UNIX exam and get the Symantec certification. Geekcert offers the latest real Hotest 250-254 exam questions Administration of Symantec Cluster Server 6.1 for UNIX exam PDF and VCE dumps. All the SCS Symantec Cluster Server for UNIX Hotest 250-254 pdf dumps exam questions and answers are the latest and cover every aspect of Hotest 250-254 pdf dumps exam.

Geekcert braindumps Geekcert dumps free download. Geekcert goal is to help you get passed in all Geekcert certification exams first attempt. high pass rate and success rate. you are only successful with 250-254 testing engine in your it certification – Geekcert! get 250-254 certification with Geekcert study materials and practice tests.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 250-254 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/250-254.html

The following are the 250-254 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 250-254 dumps.Free sample questions of 250-254 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real 250-254 dumps.

Question 1:

What is a feature of keyless licensing?

A. It works on all versions of Veritas Cluster Server.

B. It requires an accessible Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) server.

C. It requires that at least one key be installed on each cluster host.

D. It must be enabled before installation of Veritas Cluster Server.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

An employee received the following email notification:

***********************************************

Dear Bob,

Your email to [email protected] with subject Account Info you requested violates the company\’s Customer Data Protection policy.

If this is a legitimate business email, please add the word Encrypt in the subject line of the email. The communication will then be automatically sent to the recipient in an encrypted form, in accordance with company policy.

Please note that this violation has also been reported to your manager. Confidential data protection is every employee\’s responsibility.

Thank you,

Corporate Information Security Team *****************************************************

Which recommended item is missing from this email notification?

A. A contact person

B. The severity of the violation

C. The affected business unit

D. The name of the file that caused the violation

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which two agents are classified as testing agents according to the Symantec Cluster Server Bundled Agents Reference Guide? (Select two.)

A. ElifNone

B. FileNone

C. Phantom

D. Volume

E. Proxy

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Which resource type creates a dependency between applications that are configured in different Veritas Cluster Server clusters?

A. Proxy

B. RemoteGroup

C. Phantom

D. Application

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which characteristic of Veritas Cluster Server attributes allows the public interface to be different for each of the systems in the cluster?

A. Global

B. Local

C. Custom

D. Proxy

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which command should an administrator run to implement fencing within a running cluster?

A. /opt/VRTSvxfen/install -fencing

B. /opt/VRTS/install/installvcs -fencing

C. /opt/VRTS/install/installfencing

D. /opt/VRTSvxfen/installfencing

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

When configured as default, the Veritas Cluster Server Notifier receives queued messages on a schedule every how many minutes?

A. One

B. Three

C. Five

D. Ten

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which Veritas Cluster Server command is used to override static resource type attribute values for a specific resource?

A. haclus

B. hatype

C. hagrp

D. hares

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which two capabilities does the Veritas Cluster Manager Java console provide when used with the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Simulator and a simulated cluster that are unavailable when using the Veritas Cluster Manager Java console with a live cluster configuration? (Select two.)

A. System power on and off

B. Remove a system

C. Fault a resource

D. Run a virtual firedrill

E. Copy a service group

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

An administrator needs to set up a service group dependency with the following characteristics:

The parent group depends on the child group being offline on the same system.

If the child group faults and fails over to a system on which the parent is running, the parent should switch to another system.

Which type of dependency is this?

A. Offline local

B. Offline home

C. Offline remote

D. Offline parent

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Where are the installation log files created when Veritas Cluster Server is installed?

A. /opt/VRTS/install/logs/

B. /var/VRTS/install/logs/

C. /opt/VRTSvcs/install/logs/

D. /var/VRTSvcs/install/logs/

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which two standard Veritas Cluster Server resource types can determine if an application has unexpectedly exited? (Select two.)

A. Process

B. FileOnOff

C. Proxy

D. Application E. Phantom

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

There is a two-node Veritas cluster with two independent heartbeat connections, and fencing is disabled.

What happens when one of the heartbeat connections is lost?

A. The cluster will disable service group failover on system fault.

B. The cluster will be fully functional, but will be unsupported.

C. The cluster will automatically configure a low-pri heartbeat over the public net.

D. The cluster will take all service groups offline until both heartbeats are restored.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Only the TriggerPath service group attribute value for the websg service group is set to “bin/websg” for cluster nodes where the websg service group can be online.

Where will Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) look for the preonline event trigger if the preonline event trigger is also enabled on all cluster systems for the websg service group?

A. $VCS_HOME/preonline/triggers/bin/websg

B. $VCS_HOME/bin/websg/preonline

C. $VCS_HOME/bin/websg/internal_triggers

D. $VCS_HOME/preonline/bin/websg

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What should an administrator do when the License Key expires?

A. Enter a new key on the Advanced Settings page

B. Enter a new key on the System Settings page

C. Edit the key in the VontuManager.conf file D. Edit the key in the Protect.properties file

Correct Answer: B


[Latest Version] Easily Pass ST0-237 Exam With Geekcert Updated Symantec ST0-237 Preparation Materials

We promise that you should not worry about Hotest ST0-237 exam questions exam at all. We, Geekcert, are here to provide guidance to help you pass the Symantec Certified Security program Latest ST0-237 exam questions Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12 Technical Assessment exam and get the Symantec certification. Geekcert offers the latest real Jan 11,2022 Newest ST0-237 QAs Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12 Technical Assessment exam PDF and VCE dumps. All the Symantec Certified Security program Newest ST0-237 pdf exam questions and answers are the latest and cover every aspect of Hotest ST0-237 vce dumps exam.

Geekcert: best ST0-237 certification material provider are cheapest in the market! Geekcert – help all candidates pass the ST0-237 certification exams easily. free and latest Geekcert exam questions | all Geekcert latest microsoft, vmware, comptia, cisco,hp ,citrix and some other hot exams practice tests and questions and answers free download!

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest ST0-237 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/ST0-237.html

The following are the ST0-237 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our ST0-237 dumps.Do you what to see some samples before ST0-237 exam? Check the following ST0-237 free dumps or download ST0-237 dumps here.

Question 1:

How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which user store is essential for using the user risk summary feature?

A. Tomcat

B. Active Directory

C. MySQL

D. Samba

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A policy template called Customer Credit Card Numbers is being imported into the system. What is the default result for this action?

A. the policy template will be listed under US Regulatory Enforcement Templates and be available

B. the policy template will be enabled by default

C. the policy template will be available after logging off and on to Enforce

D. the policy template will be listed under Imported Templates

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which action is available for use in Smart Response rules and Automated Response rules?

A. modify SMTP message

B. block email message

C. limit incident data retention

D. post log to a syslog server

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which response rule action will be ignored when using an Exact Data Matching (EDM) policy?

A. Network Prevent: Remove HTTP/HTTPS Content

B. All: Send Email Notification

C. Network Protect: Copy File

D. Endpoint Prevent: Notify

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

When deploying Network Monitor, an administrator needs to implement monitoring of port-based protocols. Which protocol is supported by Network Monitor?

A. secure tunneling

B. IP

C. TCP

D. UDP

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator needs to implement a Mobile Email Monitor solution to inspect corporate emails on mobile devices. Where should the administrator place the web proxy?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator needs to implement the use of a scanner, but is unfamiliar with the general, high-level process associated with scanners. Which action occurs in step 3?

A. the scanner reviews and confirms configuration parameters

B. the scanner connects to target and reads the content and metadata

C. the scanner process is started by a user or scheduled event

D. the scanner packages filtered content and posts the data to Discover server

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

You have encapsulated the disk for swap partitions and created mirrors under the VxVM control. Which files in /etc get modified when the root disk is encapsulated?

A. vfstab and file system

B. vfstab and rootdisk

C. mnttab and file system

D. volboot and file system

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which command attempts to find the name of the drive in the private region and to match it to a disk media record that is missing a disk access record?

A. vxdisk

B. vxdctl

C. vxreattach

D. vxrecover

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A company needs to disable USB devices on computers that are generating a number of recurring DLP incidents. It decides to implement Endpoint Lockdown using Endpoint Prevent, which integrates with Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager and Symantec Management Platform. After incidents are still detected from several agents, the company determines that a component is missing.

Which component needs to be added to disable the USB devices once incidents are detected?

A. Control Compliance Suite

B. Workflow Solution

C. pcAnywhere

D. Risk Automation Suite

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized by department. What must be populated to generate this report?

A. remediation attributes

B. sender correlations

C. status groups

D. custom attributes

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What should an incident responder select to remediate multiple incidents simultaneously?

A. Smart Response on the Incident Snapshot page

B. Automated Response on an Incident List report

C. Smart Response on an Incident List report

D. Automated Response on the Incident Snapshot page

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

The chief information security officer (CISO) is responsible for overall risk reduction and develops high- level initiatives to respond to security risk trends. Which report will be useful to the CISO?

A. all high severity incidents that have occurred during the last week

B. all dismissed incidents violating a specific policy marked as false positive

C. all incidents from the previous month summarized by business units and policy

D. all new incidents that have been generated by a specific business unit during the last week

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

How should an administrator determine which Database version is running?

A. Run the command select database version from database;

B. Right click on database folder and select version

C. Run the command select * from v$version;

D. Look in add/remove programs for the database program

Correct Answer: C


[Newest Version] Free Geekcert Symantec 250-441 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

Geekcert 2022 Newest Symantec 250-441 Symantec Certified Specialist Exam VCE and PDF Dumps for Free Download!

250-441 Symantec Certified Specialist Exam PDF and VCE Dumps : 95QAs Instant Download: https://www.geekcert.com/250-441.html [100% 250-441 Exam Pass Guaranteed or Money Refund!!]
☆ Free view online pdf on Geekcert free test 250-441 PDF: https://www.geekcert.com/online-pdf/250-441.pdf

The Symantec Certified Specialist Hotest 250-441 vce Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 certification exam is a real worth challenging task if you want to win a place in the IT industry. You should not feel frustrated about the confronting difficulties. Geekcert gives you the most comprehensive version of Hotest 250-441 free download Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 VCE dumps now. Get a complete hold on Symantec Certified Specialist Symantec Certified Specialist Hotest 250-441 free download Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 exam syllabus through Geekcert and boost up your skills. What’s more, the Symantec Certified Specialist Jan 07,2022 Latest 250-441 QAs dumps are the latest. It would be great helpful to your Symantec Certified Specialist Hotest 250-441 pdf dumps exam.

250-441 vce exams | 250-441 vce certification software, 250-441 download vce dumps. you are only successful with 250-441 testing engine in your it certification – Geekcert! latest 250-441 exam dumps. get your certification easily- Geekcert. Geekcert – professional 250-441 certification exam dumps provider. we do all things to help with your exams.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 250-441 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/250-441.html

The following are the 250-441 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 250-441 dumps.Although questions are from 250-441 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the 250-441 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

Which section of the ATP console should an ATP Administrator use to evaluate prioritized threats within the environment?

A. Search

B. Action Manager

C. Incident Manager

D. Events

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which two database attributes are needed to create a Microsoft SQL SEP database connection? (Choose two.)

A. Database version

B. Database IP address

C. Database domain name

D. Database hostname E. Database name

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

Why is it important for an Incident Responder to review Related Incidents and Events when analyzing an incident for an After Actions Report?

A. It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the responder can clean up the infection.

B. It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the responder can determine the best remediation method.

C. It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the threat is NOT continuing to spread to other parts of the environment.

D. It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the responder can close out the incident in the ATP manager.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which best practice does Symantec recommend with the Endpoint Detection and Response feature?

A. Create a unique Cynic account to provide to ATP

B. Create a unique Symantec Messaging Gateway account to provide to ATP

C. Create a unique Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) administrator account to provide to ATP

D. Create a unique Email Security.cloud portal account to provide to ATP

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which section of the ATP console should an ATP Administrator use to create blacklists and whitelists?

A. Reports

B. Settings

C. Action Manager

D. Policies

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://symwisedownload.symantec.com//resources/sites/SYMWISE/content/live/DOCUMENTATION/10000/DOC10986/en_US/satp_administration_guide_3.1.pdf?__gda__=1541979133_5668f0b4c03c16ac1a30d54989313e76

(132)


Question 6:

How should an ATP Administrator configure Endpoint Detection and Response according to Symantec best practices for a SEP environment with more than one domain?

A. Create a unique Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) domain for ATP

B. Create an ATP manager for each Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) domain

C. Create a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) controller connection for each domain

D. Create a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) controller connection for the primary domain

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://symwisedownload.symantec.com//resources/sites/SYMWISE/content/live/DOCUMENTATION/10000/DOC10986/en_US/satp_administration_guide_3.1.pdf?__gda__=1541979133_5668f0b4c03c16ac1a30d54989313e76

(46)


Question 7:

Which attribute is required when configuring the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) Log Collector?

A. SEPM embedded database name

B. SEPM embedded database type

C. SEPM embedded database version

D. SEPM embedded database password

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO125960.html


Question 8:

An Incident Responder wants to run a database search that will list all client named starting with SYM. Which syntax should the responder use?

A. hostname like “SYM”

B. hostname “SYM”

C. hostname “SYM*”

D. hostname like “SYM*”

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO124805.html


Question 9:

What is the main constraint an ATP Administrator should consider when choosing a network scanner model?

A. Throughput

B. Bandwidth

C. Link speed

D. Number of users

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Where can an Incident Responder view Cynic results in ATP?

A. Events

B. Dashboard

C. File Details

D. Incident Details

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO128417.html


Question 11:

What occurs when an endpoint fails its Host Integrity check and is unable to remediate?

A. The endpoint automatically switches to using a Compliance location, where a Compliance policy is applied to the computer.

B. The endpoint automatically switches to using a System Lockdown location, where a System Lockdown policy is applied to the computer.

C. The endpoint automatically switches to using a Host Integrity location, where a Host Integrity policy is applied to the computer.

D. The endpoint automatically switches to using a Quarantine location, where a Quarantine policy is applied to the computer.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which threat is an example of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?

A. Koobface

B. Brain

C. Flamer

D. Creeper

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

An Incident Responder observes an incident with multiple malware downloads from a malicious domain. The domain in question belongs to one of the organization\’s suppliers. The organization needs access to the site to continue placing orders. ATP: Network is configured in Inline Block mode.

How should the Incident Responder proceed?

A. Whitelist the domain and close the incident as a false positive

B. Identify the pieces of malware and blacklist them, then notify the supplier

C. Blacklist the domain and IP of the attacking site

D. Notify the supplier and block the site on the external firewall

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which threat is an example of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?

A. Loyphish

B. Aurora

C. ZeroAccess

D. Michelangelo

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which action should an Incident Responder take to remediate false positives, according to Symantec best practices?

A. Blacklist

B. Whitelist

C. Delete file

D. Submit file to Cynic

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://symwisedownload.symantec.com//resources/sites/SYMWISE/content/live/DOCUMENTATION/10000/DOC10899/en_US/satp_security_ops_guide_3.0.5.pdf?__gda__=1541987119_a3559016c9355c98c2ec53278a8df2a0

(119)


Geekcert exam braindumps are pass guaranteed. We guarantee your pass for the 250-441 exam successfully with our Symantec materials. Geekcert Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 exam PDF and VCE are the latest and most accurate. We have the best Symantec in our team to make sure Geekcert Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 exam questions and answers are the most valid. Geekcert exam Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0 exam dumps will help you to be the Symantec specialist, clear your 250-441 exam and get the final success.

250-441 Symantec exam dumps (100% Pass Guaranteed) from Geekcert: https://www.geekcert.com/250-441.html [100% Exam Pass Guaranteed]…

Free Sharing Geekcert Updated Symantec 250-252 VCE and PDF Exam Practice Materials

Geekcert 2022 Newest Symantec 250-252 SCS Exam VCE and PDF Dumps for Free Download!

250-252 SCS Exam PDF and VCE Dumps : 109QAs Instant Download: https://www.geekcert.com/250-252.html [100% 250-252 Exam Pass Guaranteed or Money Refund!!]
☆ Free view online pdf on Geekcert free test 250-252 PDF: https://www.geekcert.com/online-pdf/250-252.pdf

Do not worry about that if you are stuck in the SCS Latest 250-252 pdf exam difficulties, Geekcert will assist you all your way through the SCS Latest 250-252 pdf dumps Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix exam with the most update SCS Newest 250-252 pdf PDF and VCE dumps. Geekcert exam Latest 250-252 vce preparation materials are the most comprehensive material, covering every key knowledge of Jan 07,2022 Newest 250-252 free download Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix exam.

Geekcert – leader of it certifications. best practice, certify for sure! Geekcert – our goal is to help all candidates pass their 250-252 exams and get their certifications in their first attempt. money back guarantee. pass the 250-252 exam on your first attempt with Geekcert! Geekcert certification 250-252 practice exams.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 250-252 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/250-252.html

The following are the 250-252 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 250-252 dumps.These questions are from 250-252 free dumps. All questions in 250-252 dumps are from the latest 250-252 real exams.

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the disk access name for the device displayed in the vxdisk list output?

A. mydg01 B. c2t0d0

C. mydg

D. c1t0d0

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What are two benefits of using the FileSnap feature? (Select two.)

A. Instant snapshot creation of the same file

B. Instant snapshot creation of the same volume

C. Instant snapshot creation of the same file system

D. Instant snapshot creation of the same disk

E. Instant snapshot creation of the same virtual machine boot image

Correct Answer: AE


Question 3:

Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)

A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default

B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance

C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis

D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access

E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg. There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be affected for planning purposes.

Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?

A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg

B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12

C. vxdg list appdg webdg

D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

How does the LDAP synchronization process treat mail-enabled groups?

A. as a user list

B. as a distribution list

C. as domain groups

D. as an LDAP list

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the layout of the volume?

A. concat-mirror

B. mirror-stripe

C. mirror-concat

D. stripe-mirror

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored volume?

A. nplex

B. nmirror

C. plex

D. ndisk

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

What does the TEMPRMSD plex state indicate?

A. The plex is synchronized.

B. The plex is removed.

C. The plex is detaching.

D. The plex is synchronizing.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which three are valid configuration options when working with compliance folders? (Select three.)

A. the format of the notification email

B. the incident archive tag

C. the retention time for compliance incidents

D. the maximum size for all compliance folders

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 10:

Which two are reports provided by Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)

A. Executive Summary

B. Reputation Summary

C. Hardware Utilization Summary

D. IM Compliance Summary

E. Capacity Planning Summary

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

Which Veritas File System (VxFS) I/O error policy will place the file system into a degraded state upon a metadata write failure?

A. nodisable

B. wdisable

C. mwdisable

D. mdisable

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

When performing a dry run for deduplication, fsdedupadm may take a \’-o threshold=percentage\’ argument.

This argument will initiate an actual deduplication run when the metric reaches which given value?

A. the percentage of file system disk usage

B. the percentage of expected savings

C. the percentage of duplicate file names

D. the percentage of the dry run completed

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which would receive a spam verdict from Symantec?

A. an unwanted account statement from an recipient\’s financial institution

B. unsolicited email

C. an email that has seven instances of the term \’viagra\’

D. unsolicited commercial bulk email

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

What is the first action an administrator must take when configuring SmartTier on a newly installed Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX server?

A. create placement classes

B. create a volume set

C. turn on the file change log (FCL)

D. define placement policies

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What is a key prerequisite for enabling the end-user Email Spam Quarantine feature?

A. selecting the \’Delete messages sent to unresolved email addresses\’ option

B. importing a list of allowed users on the Quarantine Setup page

C. defining an LDAP source for synchronization

D. defining an LDAP source for authentication

Correct Answer: D


Geekcert exam braindumps are pass guaranteed. We guarantee your pass for the 250-252 exam successfully with our Symantec materials. Geekcert Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix exam PDF and VCE are the latest and most accurate. We have the best Symantec in our team to make sure Geekcert Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix exam questions and answers are the most valid. Geekcert exam Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix exam dumps will help you to be the Symantec specialist, clear your 250-252 exam and get the final success.

250-252 Symantec exam dumps (100% Pass Guaranteed) from Geekcert: https://www.geekcert.com/250-252.html [100% Exam Pass Guaranteed]…

Free Share Geekcert Symantec 250-251 Exam Dumps and Practice Questions and Answers

We promise that you should not worry about Jan 11,2022 Newest 250-251 exam questions exam at all. We, Geekcert, are here to provide guidance to help you pass the Symantec Certified Security program Latest 250-251 pdf dumps Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0) exam and get the Symantec certification. Geekcert offers the latest real Hotest 250-251 QAs Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0) exam PDF and VCE dumps. All the Symantec Certified Security program Newest 250-251 vce exam questions and answers are the latest and cover every aspect of Newest 250-251 pdf dumps exam.

Geekcert – pass all 250-251 certification exams easily with our real exam practice. latest update and experts revised. free 250-251 exam sample questions, 250-251 exam practice online, 250-251 exam practice on mobile phone, 250-251 pdf, 250-251 books, 250-251 pdf file download! Geekcert latest 250-251 exam dumps questions and answers in pdf format.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 250-251 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/250-251.html

The following are the 250-251 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 250-251 dumps.Real questions from 250-251 free dumps. Download demo of 250-251 dumps to check the validity.

Question 1:

Which feature of VCS can prevent overloading of a system\’s resources in the event of service group failover?

A. Parallel Service Groups

B. Capacities

C. Limits

D. Load Failover Policy

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which types of monitoring can be performed on Oracle resources? (Choose two.)

A. Detail monitoring

B. Basic level monitoring

C. Kernel level monitoring

D. Specific monitoring

E. Service monitoring

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

Which text files are created at the end of a successful run of installvcs -installonly? (Choose three.)

A. Log

B. Response

C. Gabtab

D. Llttab

E. Summary

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 4:

Under which condition will the service group attempt to fail over with default service group attribute settings except FaultPropagation=0?

A. System failure

B. Jeopardy

C. Critical resource fault

D. Set ManageFaults=ALL

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

When preparing to install VCS on the systems named S1 and S2, which bmethods can be used to verify software compatibility? (Choose three.)

A. Check the VCS release notes for supported software.

B. Run the installvcs recheck S1 S2 command.

C. Run the installvcs heck S1 S2 command.

D. Run the installvcs ompat S1 S2 command.

E. Check the Symantec Enterprise Support Web site.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 6:

Which statements are true about the VCS Simulator? (Choose two.)

A. It must use the production main.cf file.

B. It can use a copy of the production main.cf file.

C. It can simulate system failures.

D. It can simulate heartbeat failures.

E. It can manage a running cluster.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 7:

Click on the Exhibit Button.

Given:

AutoStartPolicy = Load and FailoverPolicy = Load for all service groups. The group startup order is group_brown_sg, group_yellow_sg, group_green_sg, group_red_sg, and group_blue_sg.

On which system will the group_blue_sg service group be brought online at cluster startup?

A. SVR1

B. SVR2

C. SVR3

D. SVR4

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Given the partial main.cf definition:

group GroupA (

SystemList = { SystemA = 0, SystemB = 1, SystemC = 2, SystemD = 4 }

AutoStartList = { SystemA, SystemD }

OnlineRetryLimit = 3

OnlineRetryInterval = 120)

GroupA is online on SystemA.

All other systems are up and available.

Where will GroupA fail over to when SystemA faults?

A. SystemA

B. SystemB

C. SystemC

D. SystemD

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

The amount of information logged on all Process resources needs to be increased in order to debug a problem in a VCS cluster. After running the proper commands to accomplish this, which file is modified?

A. log.cf

B. debug.cf

C. main.cf

D. types.cf

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

While in Jeopardy, the system with the ONLINE GroupA service group crashes. Which GroupA attribute is set on the surviving systems?

A. AutoStart

B. FAULTED

C. AutoDisabled

D. STALE_ADMIN_WAIT

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A parallel service group named net_sg is online on SystemA, SystemB, and SystemC in a threenode cluster. The service group contains a critical NIC resource and a non-critical Phantom resource. If the network device specified in the NIC attribute fails on SystemA, the net_sg service group state is _____.

A. Faulted on SystemA, online on SystemB and SystemC

B. Faulted on SystemA, SystemB, and SystemC

C. Offline on SystemA, online on SystemB and SystemC

D. Partially online on SystemA, online on SystemB and SystemC

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

What are requirements for configuring I/O Fencing? (Choose two.)

A. Veritas Volume Manager Dynamic Multi-Pathing

B. Shared storage devices that support SCSI-3 Persistent Reservations

C. A minimum of three LLT heartbeat connections

D. A quorum disk on each system in the cluster

E. Veritas Volume Manager 4.0 or later

Correct Answer: BE


Question 13:

An application is experiencing failures. The database administrator wants VCS to take all resources offline after failure. The application should remain offline. Which attribute can accomplish this?

A. ManageFaults

B. FailOverPolicy

C. AutoFailover

D. Critical

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which two components are installed when the installvcs script is executed? (Select two.)

A. bundled agents

B. VxVM agents

C. Cluster File System

D. GAB driver

E. Cluster Volume Manager

Correct Answer: AD


Question 15:

If the hostname is changed in the sysname file, which three additional files must be modified? (Select three.)

A. llthosts

B. gabtab

C. llttab

D. main.cf

E. types.cf

Correct Answer: ACD


Geekcert New Updated 250-318 Exam Dumps Free Download

Don’t worry about how to get yourself well prepared your SCS Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2014 Latest 250-318 QAs exam! Geekcert will work you out of your SCS Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2014 Jan 11,2022 Newest 250-318 exam questions exam with the latest updated Newest 250-318 free download Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2014 PDF and VCE dumps. Geekcert provides the latest real Symantec SCS Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2014 Newest 250-318 QAs exam preparation material, covering every aspect of Newest 250-318 practice exam curriculum.

Geekcert – help candidates on all 250-318 certification exams preparation. pass 250-318 certification exams, get it certifications easily. Geekcert – help candidates on all 250-318 certification exams preparation. pass 250-318 certification exams, get 250-318 certifications easily. dominate the 250-318 exam! Geekcert | 250-318 certification materials | videos | study guides.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 250-318 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/250-318.html

The following are the 250-318 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 250-318 dumps.If you need to check sample questions of the 250-318 free dumps, go through the Q and As from 250-318 dumps below.

Question 1:

Which tab provides the ability to monitor and manage all backup, restore, installation, and storage operation jobs?

A. Home

B. Backup and Restore

C. Job Monitor

D. Storage

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which two tasks can be performed using the \’Database maintenance\’ global settings? (Select two.)

A. Optimize database size

B. Change the database location

C. Export data from the database

D. Perform a database consistency check

E. Import data to the database

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

What is the default media set configured in Job Defaults for Back Up to Tape?

A. Scratch Media

B. Keep Data For 4 Weeks

C. Keep Data Infinitely – Do Not Allow Overwrite

D. Foreign Media

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which two configurations are unavailable in the Symantec Backup Exec 2014 Configure Storage Wizard? (Select two.)

A. OpenStorage devices

B. Virtual tape libraries

C. Desktop and Laptop Option (DLO) storage

D. Disk Cartridge storage

E. SLR data cartridge devices

Correct Answer: CE


Question 5:

Which utility operation should an administrator perform within Symantec Backup Exec 2014 when adding new media to a device?

A. Catalog

B. Import

C. Label

D. Inventory

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Media can be deleted from which media set?

A. Cleaning Media

B. Scratch Media

C. Retired Media

D. Backup Exec and Windows NT Backup Media

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What is a consequence of changing the catalog path?

A. existing catalog files will be moved to the new path

B. new catalog files will be written to the new path

C. existing catalog files will be truncated

D. new and existing catalog files will be re-indexed

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which process is used to automatically delete expired backup sets stored on disk or in cloud- based storage?

A. Advanced Device and Media Management

B. data lifecycle management process

C. database maintenance grooming process

D. garbage collection process

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which Symantec Backup Exec 2014 feature allows an administrator to organize and view server information in the list of servers?

A. Server details

B. Selection list

C. Reports tab

D. Server group

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which job type is used to determine whether a backup job will succeed?

A. verify

B. test run

C. job validation

D. consistency check

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

An administrator needs to ensure that any new resources added to a server in the future will be automatically included in the backup job.

How should the administrator make the selections to ensure dynamic protection?

A. Check the box next to the server name

B. Check the job option for dynamic inclusion

C. Use the Advanced File Selection page to dynamically include all resources on the server

D. Enable the option to Discover Data to Back Up in Backup Exec Settings

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which action must an administrator take to properly restore System State on a live Windows web server?

A. Restore System State in Safe mode

B. Restore System State in Directory Services Restore mode

C. Restore System State and reboot the server

D. Reboot the server before the restore of System State

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which task must an administrator run after performing a Simplified Disaster Recovery of SQL server to fully recover the SQL server application?

A. log in to the SQL server to verify user databases are restored

B. perform a SQL restore job from the Backup Exec server

C. run a file system validation on the server\’s C:\ volume

D. run a consistency check on the SQL server

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

How can an administrator restore different data types from multiple backup sets?

A. Multi-select the sets > restore each data type individually

B. Multi-select the sets > perform the restore of each data type at the same time

C. Select each data type individually > perform two separate restores

D. Select each data type individually > place both jobs on hold > run the first job > submit the second once the first restore job completes

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is the default location for troubleshooting logs on a Symantec Backup Exec 2014 server?

A. \Symantec\Logs

B. \Program Files\Symantec\Logs

C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs

D. \Program Files\Windows\Logs

Correct Answer: D


[Newest Version] Free Geekcert Symantec 250-438 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

Geekcert 2022 Real Symantec 250-438 Symantec Other Certification Exam VCE and PDF Dumps for Free Download!

250-438 Symantec Other Certification Exam PDF and VCE Dumps : 70QAs Instant Download: https://www.geekcert.com/250-438.html [100% 250-438 Exam Pass Guaranteed or Money Refund!!]
☆ Free view online pdf on Geekcert free test 250-438 PDF: https://www.geekcert.com/online-pdf/250-438.pdf

How to pass Symantec Other Certification Hotest 250-438 practice exam 100% without any difficulties? We, Geekcert, provide the latest exam preparation material for the Symantec Latest 250-438 vce dumps Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 15 exam. Successful candidates share their experience about their Symantec Other Certification Hotest 250-438 practice exam and the Symantec Other Certification Jan 07,2022 Newest 250-438 vce dumps exam preparation with Geekcert exam Q and As. Geekcert provides the new VCE and PDF dumps for the latest Hotest 250-438 practice exam. We ensure your Symantec Other Certification Hotest 250-438 vce Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 15 exam pass.

as a leading 250-438 exam study guides provider, Geekcert provides the latest real test practice for hottest cisco, microsoft, comptia, vmware, ibm, hp, oracle, citrix exams. 100% real and latest. Geekcert – best way to guarantee your 250-438 certification and exam success! Geekcert – 250-438 certification with money back assurance.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 250-438 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/250-438.html

The following are the 250-438 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 250-438 dumps.We have sample questions for 250-438 free dumps. You can download and check the real questions of updated 250-438 dumps.

Question 1:

What is the correct configuration for “BoxMonitor.Channels” that will allow the server to start as a Network Monitor server?

A. Packet Capture, Span Port

B. Packet Capture, Network Tap

C. Packet Capture, Copy Rule

D. Packet capture, Network Monitor

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.TECH218980.html


Question 2:

A DLP administrator has enabled and successfully tested custom attribute lookups for incident data based on the Active Directory LDAP plugin. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has attempted to generate a User Risk Summary report, but the report is empty. The DLP administrator confirms the Cisco\’s role has the “User Reporting” privilege enabled, but User Risk reporting is still not working.

What is the probable reason that the User Risk Summary report is blank?

A. Only DLP administrators are permitted to access and view data for high risk users.

B. The Enforce server has insufficient permissions for importing user attributes.

C. User attribute data must be configured separately from incident data attributes.

D. User attributes have been incorrectly mapped to Active Directory accounts.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

How should a DLP administrator exclude a custom endpoint application named “custom_app.exe” from being monitoring by Application File Access Control?

A. Add “custom_app.exe” to the “Application Whitelist” on all Endpoint servers.

B. Add “custom_app.exe” Application Monitoring Configuration and de-select all its channel options.

C. Add “custom_app_.exe” as a filename exception to the Endpoint Prevent policy.

D. Add “custom_app.exe” to the “Program Exclusion List” in the agent configuration settings.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.mcafee.com/bundle/data-loss-prevention-11.0.400-product-guide-epolicy-orchestrator/page/GUID-0F81A895-0A46-4FF8-A869-0365D6620185.html


Question 4:

A software company wants to protect its source code, including new source code created between scheduled indexing runs. Which detection method should the company use to meet this requirement?

A. Exact Data Matching (EDM)

B. Described Content Matching (DCM)

C. Vector Machine Learning (VML)

D. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/DLP15.0/DLP/v100774847_v120691346/Scheduling-remote-indexing?locale=EN_US


Question 5:

Which product is able to replace a confidential document residing on a file share with a marker file explaining why the document was removed?

A. Network Discover

B. Cloud Service for Email

C. Endpoint Prevent

D. Network Protect

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/dlp15.1/DLP/v15600645_v125428396/Configuring-Network-Protect-for-file-shares?locale=EN_US


Question 6:

Which two locations can Symantec DLP scan and perform Information Centric Encryption (ICE) actions on? (Choose two.)

A. Exchange

B. Jiveon

C. File store

D. SharePoint

E. Confluence

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.symantec.com/content/dam/symantec/docs/data-sheets/information-centric-encryption-en.pdf


Question 7:

Which channel does Endpoint Prevent protect using Device Control?

A. Bluetooth

B. USB storage

C. CD/DVD

D. Network card

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO80865.html#v36651044


Question 8:

A DLP administrator needs to stop the PacketCapture process on a detection server. Upon inspection of the Server Detail page, the administrator discovers that all processes are missing from the display. What are the processes missing from the Server Detail page display?

A. The Display Process Control setting on the Advanced Settings page is disabled.

B. The Advanced Process Control setting on the System Settings page is deselected.

C. The detection server Display Control Process option is disabled on the Server Detail page.

D. The detection server PacketCapture process is displayed on the Server Overview page.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/content/unifiedweb/en_US/article.TECH220250.html


Question 9:

What detection technology supports partial contents matching?

A. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

B. Described Content Matching (DCM)

C. Exact Data Matching (EDM)

D. Optical Character Recognition (OCR)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/dlp15.1/DLP/v115965297_v125428396/Mac-agent-detection-technologies?locale=EN_US


Question 10:

When managing an Endpoint Discover scan, a DLP administrator notices some endpoint computers are NOT completing their scans. When does the DLP agent stop scanning?

A. When the agent sends a report within the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

B. When the endpoint computer is rebooted and the agent is started

C. When the agent is unable to send a status report within the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

D. When the agent sends a report immediately after the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

An administrator is unable to log in to the Enforce management console as “sysadmin”. Symantec DLP is configured to use Active Directory authentication. The administrator is a member of two roles: “sysadmin” and “remediator.” How should the administrator log in to the Enforce console with the “sysadmin” role?

A. sysadmin\username

B. sysadmin\[email protected]

C. domain\username

D. username\sysadmin

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which tool must a DLP administrator run to certify the database prior to upgrading DLP?

A. Lob_Tablespace Reclamation Tool

B. Upgrade Readiness Tool

C. SymDiag

D. EnforceMigrationUtility

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.DOC10667.html


Question 13:

What is the correct order for data in motion when a customer has integrated their CloudSOC and DLP solutions?

A. User > CloudSOC Gatelet > DLP Cloud Detection Service > Application

B. User > Enforce > Application

C. User > Enforce > CloudSOC > Application

D. User > CloudSOC Gatelet > Enforce > Application

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

What activity should occur during the baseline phase, according to the risk reduction model?

A. Define and build the incident response team

B. Monitor incidents and tune the policy to reduce false positives

C. Establish business metrics and begin sending reports to business unit stakeholders

D. Test policies to ensure that blocking actions minimize business process disruptions

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which two actions are available for a “Network Prevent: Remove HTTP/HTTPS content” response rule when the content is unable to be removed? (Choose two.)

A. Allow the content to be posted

B. Remove the content through FlexResponse

C. Block the content before posting

D. Encrypt the content before posting

E. Redirect the content to an alternative destination

Correct Answer: AE


Geekcert exam braindumps are pass guaranteed. We guarantee your pass for the 250-438 exam successfully with our Symantec materials. Geekcert Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 15 exam PDF and VCE are the latest and most accurate. We have the best Symantec in our team to make sure Geekcert Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 15 exam questions and answers are the most valid. Geekcert exam Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 15 exam dumps will help you to be the Symantec specialist, clear your 250-438 exam and get the final success.

250-438 Symantec exam dumps (100% Pass Guaranteed) from Geekcert: https://www.geekcert.com/250-438.html [100% Exam Pass Guaranteed]…