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Question 1:

What are Martian addresses on a Junos device?

A. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with MPLS VPNs.

B. IP addresses that are never installed in the routing table.

C. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with GRE tunnels.

D. IP addresses specifically used for out-of-band management.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which two routing-instance types are used for non-VPN-related applications? (Choose two.)

A. virtual-router

B. vrf

C. forwarding

D. vpls

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about unified ISSU? (Choose two.)

A. It allows gradual implementation of new features.

B. It reduces operating costs while delivering higher service levels.

C. It involves network down time during software image upgrades.

D. It requires graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES) and nonstop active routing (NSR).

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

In an OSPF environment, which two configuration parameters are used to determine which router is the DR? (Choose two.)

A. the router with the highest priority

B. the router with the lowest priority

C. the router with the highest RID

D. the router with the lowest RID

Correct Answer: AC


Question 5:

You are asked to redistribute routes into OSPF.

Which action accomplishes this task?

A. Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy under the [edit protocols ospf area] hierarchy.

B. Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.

C. Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import or an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.

D. Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

You want to establish an IS-IS Level 1 adjacency between two routers. The adjacency is not forming.

Which three reasons would account for this issue? (Choose three.)

A. A lack of or a malformed ISO network entity title (NET) on the loopback interface would cause this issue.

B. The interface MTU might be less than 1492.

C. The IS-IS protocol on the loopback interface has not been enabled.

D. The area IDs might be matched and should be set differently.

E. An ISO NET might not be configured on the physical interface.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

Which three BGP attributes must be sent to EBGP peers? (Choose three.)

A. local preference

B. atomic aggregator

C. origin

D. next hop

E. AS path

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 8:

In Q-in-Q tunneling, what is the purpose of the pop-swap operation?

A. pop the outer tag and swap the inner tag

B. pop and swap the inner tag

C. pop and swap both outer and inner tags

D. pop the inner tag and swap the outer tag

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which two statements are true about STP and RSTP? (Choose two.)

A. STP uses a proposal-and-agreement handshake on point-to-point links instead of timers.

B. In RSTP, root ports and edge ports transition to the forwarding state immediately, without exchanging messages with other switches.

C. In RSTP, a TCN is generated when a port transitions to the discarding state.

D. In STP, the forwarding delay timer and maximum age timer define the convergence delay.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 10:

Which two statements are correct about default MPLS behavior on Junos devices? (Choose two.)

A. The MPLS label is popped by the penultimate router.

B. The MPLS label is popped by the ultimate router.

C. The MPLS label is pushed by the ingress router.

D. The MPLS label is swapped by the ingress router.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

Which two statements are correct regarding LDP-signaled VPLS instances? (Choose two.)

A. You must enable the Layer 2 VPN signaling NLRI.

B. You must configure the same VPLS identifier on all peers.

C. You must define a the same site-identifier value on all peers.

D. You must define all neighbors using their tunnel end-point IP addresses.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Which two statements are correct regarding BGP-signaled Layer 2 VPNs? (Choose two.)

A. You must enable the Layer 2 VPN signaling NLRI.

B. You must configure the virtual circuit identifier.

C. You must specify the neighbor using the tunnel end-point IP address.

D. You must define a unique site-identifier value.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

— Exhibit -[edit policy-options]

[email protected]# show

policy-statement load-balance {

from {

route-filter 10.243.0.0/24 exact;

route-filter 10.224.1.0/24 exact;

}

then {

load-balance per-packet;

}

}

— Exhibit -Click the Exhibit button.

You have been asked to configure per-packet load balancing.

Referring to the exhibit, which configuration correctly applies the load-balancing policy?

A. [edit routing-options] [email protected]# show forwarding-options { export load-balance; }

B. [edit routing-options] [email protected]# show static { export load-balance; }

C. [edit routing-options] [email protected]# show forwarding-table { export load-balance; }

D. [edit routing-options] [email protected]# show routing-table { export load-balance; }

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

— Exhibit -[edit] [email protected]# run show isis interface IS-IS interface database: Interface L CirID Level 1 DR Level 2 DR L1/L2 Metric ge-1/0/2.0 3 0x1 router.00 router.00 10/10 lo0.0 0 0x1 Passive Passive 0/0 — Exhibit –

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true regarding the GE interface? (Choose two.)

A. It operates at both Level 1 and Level 2.

B. It operates at Level 3, which supports hierarchical backbone areas.

C. The local router is the IS-IS designated intermediate system at all levels.

D. The local router is the IS-IS designated router at all levels.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

— Exhibit –

[edit]

[email protected]# show protocols bgp

group ibgp {

type internal;

local-address 3.3.3.3;

family inet;

neighbor 2.2.2.2;

}

[edit]

[email protected]# show routing-instances

VRF {

instance-type vrf;

interface xe-0/0/1.0;

route-distinguisher 3.3.3.3:100;

vrf-target target:100:100;

vrf-table-label;

}

[edit]

[email protected]# show protocols mpls

interface all;

[edit]

[email protected]# show protocols rsvp

interface all;

— Exhibit –

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, what is missing in the configuration to make the Layer 3 VPN functional? (Choose two.)

A. a label-switched path

B. the LDP protocol configuration

C. a virtual circuit ID

D. an NLRI of family inet-vpn unicast

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

When many Scrum Teams are working on the same product, should all of their Increments be integrated every Sprint?

A. Yes, but only for Scrum Teams whose work has dependencies.

B. Yes, otherwise the Product Owners (and stakeholders) may not be able to accurately inspect what is done.

C. No, each Scrum Team stands alone.

D. No, that is far too hard and must be done in a hardening Sprint.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

When can a Development Team cancel a Sprint?

A. It can\’t. Only Product Owners can cancel Sprints.

B. When functional expectations are not well understood.

C. When the Product Owner is absent too often.

D. When the selected Product Backlog items for the Sprint become unachievable.

E. When a technical dependency cannot be resolved.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which output from Sprint Planning provides the Development Team with a target and overarching direction for the Sprint?

A. The Sprint Backlog.

B. The Sprint Goal

C. The release plan.

D. Sprint Review minutes.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

How should a Development Team deal with non-functional requirements?

A. Ensure every Increment meets them.

B. Make sure the release department understands these requirements, but it is not the Development Team\’s responsibility.

C. Handle them during the Integration Sprint preceding the Release Sprint.

D. Assign them to the lead developers on the team.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

When is a Sprint over?

A. When the Product Owner says it is done.

B. When all Product Backlog items meet their definition of “Done”.

C. When all the tasks are completed.

D. When the time-box expires.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What are two good ways for the Development Team to make non-functional requirements visible? (Choose two.)

A. Put them on a separate list on the Scrum board, available for all to see.

B. Add them to the Product Backlog and keep the Product Owner posted on the expected effort.

C. Run the integration and regression tests before the end of the Sprint, and capture the open work for the Sprint Backlog of the next Sprint.

D. Add them to the definition of “Done” so the work is taken care of every Sprint.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 7:

How much time is required after a Sprint to prepare for the next Sprint?

A. The break between Sprints is time-boxed to 1 week for 30 day Sprints, and usually less for shorter sprints.

B. Enough time for the requirements for the next Sprint to be determined and documented.

C. Enough time for the Development team to finish the testing from the last Sprint.

D. None. A new Sprint starts immediately following the end of the previous Sprint.

E. All of the above are allowed depending on the situation.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

In the Sprint Planning meeting, the Product Owner and the Development Team were unable to reach a clear understanding about the highest order Product Backlog items. Because of this, the Development Team couldn\’t figure out how many Product Backlog items it could forecast for the upcoming Sprint. They were able to agree on a Sprint Goal, however.

Which of the following two actions should the Scrum Master support? (Choose two.)

A. Cancel the Sprint. Send the entire team to an advanced Scrum training and then start a new Sprint.

B. Forecast the most likely Product Backlog items to meet the goal and create a Sprint Backlog based on a likely initial design and plan. Once the time-box for the Sprint Planning meeting is over, start the Sprint and continue to analyze, decompose, and create additional functionality during the Sprint.

C. Continue the Sprint Planning meeting past its time-box until an adequate number of Product Backlog items are well enough understood for the Development Team to make a complete forecast. Then start the Sprint.

D. Discuss in the upcoming Sprint Retrospective why this happened and what changes will make it less likely to recur.

E. Ask everyone to take as much time as needed to analyze the Product Backlog first, and then reconvene another Sprint Planning meeting.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

Which answer best describes the topics covered in Sprint Planning?

A. What to do and who will do it.

B. How conditions have changed and how the Product Backlog should evolve.

C. What can be done and how to do it.

D. What went wrong in the last Sprint and what to do differently this Sprint.

E. Who is on the team and what team member roles will be.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which of the following is required by Scrum?

A. Sprint Retrospective.

B. Members must be stand up at the Daily Scrum.

C. Sprint Burndown Chart.

D. Release planning.

E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: E


Question 11:

Who determines when it is appropriate to update the Sprint Backlog during a Sprint?

A. The Project Manager.

B. The Development Team.

C. The Scrum Team.

D. The Product Owner.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

When do Development Team members take ownership of a Sprint Backlog item? (Choose the best answer.)

A. At the Sprint planning meeting.

B. During the Daily Scrum.

C. Never. All Sprint Backlog Items are “owned” by the entire Scrum Team.

D. Whenever a team member can accommodate more work.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The purpose of a Sprint is to produce a done Increment of product.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Five new Scrum Teams have been created to build one product. A few of the developers on one of the Development Teams ask the Scrum Master how to coordinate their work with the order teams. What should the Scrum Master do?

A. Teach the Product Owner to work with the lead developers on ordering Product Backlog in a way to avoid too much technical and development overlap during a Sprint.

B. Teach them that it is their responsibility to work with the other teams to create an integrated Increment.

C. Collect the Sprint tasks from the teams at the end of their Sprint Planning and merge that into a consolidated plan for the entire Sprint.

D. Visit the five teams each day to inspect that their Sprint Backlogs are aligned.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which two things should the Development Team do during the first Sprint? (Choose two.)

A. Make up a plan for the rest of the project.

B. Analyze, describe, and document the requirements for the subsequent Sprints.

C. Develop at least one piece of functionality.

D. Analyze, design, and describe the complete architecture and infrastructure.

E. Create an increment of potentially releasable software.

Correct Answer: CE


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Question 1:

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R80 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

A. One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes

B. One machine

C. Two machines

D. Three machines

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

In order to test ClusterXL failovers which command would you use on one of the ClusterXL nodes to initiate a failover?

A. clusterXL_admin down -p

B. cluster XL_admin up -p

C. cphaprob -d TEST -s ok register

D. cphaprob -d TEST -s problem unregister

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/ CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm#o97358


Question 3:

Which of the following is NOT a valid “fwaccel” parameter?

A. stat

B. stats

C. templates

D. packets

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk41397


Question 4:

What file extension should be used with fw monitor to allow the output file to be imported and read in Wireshark?

A. .cap

B. .exe

C. .tgz

D. .pcap

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Where will the usermode core files located?

A. /var/log/dump/usermode

B. /var/suroot

C. $FWDIR/var/log/dump/usermode

D. $CPDIR/var/log/dump/usermode

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk92764


Question 6:

How often will a gateway with Performance Pack running by default automatically review and distribute interface affinity between cores?

A. Every 60 seconds

B. Interface affinity is determined at gateway build time and does not change

C. Every 5 minutes

D. Every 10 seconds

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/ CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm


Question 7:

Which of the following features is supported in Check Point\’s implementation of IPv6?

A. Security Servers

B. QoS

C. ClusterXL High Availability

D. SAM

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk39374


Question 8:

You verified that Performance Pack is disabled and need to distribute the affinity interfaces. What command would you run to use static affinity to balance the interfaces between the SND cores?

A. cpmq set

B. sim affinity -s

C. fw ctl affinity -a -l -v

D. fw ctl affinity -s

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which command would you use to check CoreXL instances for IPv6 traffic?

A. fwaccel6 stats

B. fwaccel6 stat

C. fw ctl multik stat

D. fw6ctl multik stat

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Consider a Check Point Security Gateway under high load. What mechanism can be used to confirm that important traffic such as control connections are not dropped?

A. fw debug fgd50 on OPSEC_DEBUG_LEVEL=3

B. fw ctl multik prioq

C. fgate –d load

D. fw ctl debug –m fg all

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which type of SecureXL templates is enabled by default on Security Gateways?

A. Accept

B. Drop

C. NAT

D. VPN

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You issued the command “set ipv6-state on” in order to enable IPv6 protocol on a Security Gateway. The command was executed successfully. After reboot you notice that IPv6 protocol is not enabled. What do you do to permanently enable IPv6 protocol?

A. Issue “set ipv6-state on” again; Save configuration and reboot

B. You need to modify Gateway Properties in SmartConsole and install policy in order to enable IPv6

C. You need to set “ipv6_state” parameter in $FWDIR/boot/modules/fwkern.conf and reboot

D. You need to install a valid license to use IPv6 protocol

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Where does the translation occur with Hide NAT?

A. The destination translation occurs at the client side

B. The source translation occurs at the server side

C. The source translation occurs at the client side

D. The destination translation occurs at the server side

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Fill in the blank. The tool ____________________ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.

A. infoCP

B. infoview

C. cpinfo

D. fw cpinfo

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which is the correct “fw monitor” syntax for creating a capture file for loading it into WireShark?

A. fw monitor –e “accept ; “andgt;> Output.cap

B. This cannot be accomplished as it is not supported with R80.10

C. fw monitor –e “accept ;” –file Output.cap

D. fw monitor –e “accept ;” –o Output.cap

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

As an RF wave propagates through space, the wave front experiences natural expansion that reduces its signal strength in an area. What term describes the rate at which this expansion happens?

A. Inverse square law

B. Ohm\’s law

C. Fresnel zone thinning

D. MU-MIMO

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

What best describes WPA2 in relation to 802.11 wireless networks?

A. WPA2 is specified in the 802.11 standard as implementing CCMP/AES.

B. WPA2 is the standard that defines security for WLANs.

C. WPA2 is a certification created by the Wi-Fi Alliance that validates devices correctly implement CCMP/AES.

D. WPA2 is the second version of WPA and it enhances security through the use of TKIP instead of WEP.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You are reporting on the RF environment in you facility. The manager asks you do describe the noise floor noted in the report. Which of the following is the best explanation?

A. The energy radiated by flooring materials that causes interference in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands.

B. The noise caused by elevators, microwave ovens, and video transmitters.

C. The RF energy that exists in the environment from intentional and unintentional RF radiators that forms the baseline above which the Intentional signal of your WLAN must exist.

D. The extra energy radiated by access points and client devices beyond that intended for the signal.

Correct Answer: B

Reference http://blog.prosig.com/2008/04/14/what-is-db-noise-floor-dynamic-range/


Question 4:

Return Loss is the decrease of forward energy in a system when some of the power is being reflected back toward the transmitter.

What will cause high return loss in an RF transmission system, including the radio, cables, connectors and antenna?

A. The use of cables longer than one meter in the RF system

B. High output power at the transmitter and use of a low-gain antenna

C. A Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of 1:1

D. An impedance mismatch between components in the RF system

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Lynne runs a small hotel, and as a value added for his customers he has implemented a Wi-Fi hot-spot. Lynne has read news articles about how hackers wait at hot-spots trying to take advantage of unsuspecting users. He wants to avoid this problem at his hotel.

What is an efficient and practical step that Lynne can take to decrease the likelihood of active attacks on his customers\’ wireless computers?

A. Implement Network Access Control (NAC) and require antivirus and firewall software along with OS patches.

B. Implement an SSL VPN in the WLAN controller that initiates after HTTPS login.

C. Enable station-to-station traffic blocking by the access points in the hotel.

D. Require EAP_FAST authentication and provide customers with a username/password on their receipt.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is appended to the end of each 802.11 data frame after the payload?

A. FCS

B. Preamble

C. MAC header D. PHY header

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

The BSA of an AP covers the area used by the sales and marketing department. Thirty-five stations operate in this space. The user indicate that they need more throughput and all stations are 5 GHz capable 802.11ac clients. The current AP configuration uses 20 MHz channels in both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. What is the least expensive solution available for increasing throughput for these users without implementing configuration options that are not recommended?

A. Use a 160 MHz channel on the 5 GHz radio

B. Use a 40 MHz channel on the 5 GHz radio

C. Install a second AP in the coverage area

D. Use a 40 MHz channel on the 2.4 GHz radio.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A client complains of low data rates on his computer. When you evaluate the situation, you see that the signal strength is -84 dBm and the noise floor is -96 dBm. The client is an 802.11ac client and connects to an 802.11acAP. Both the client and AP are 2×2:2 devices. What is the likely cause of the low data rate issue?

A. Weak signal strength

B. Too few spatial streams

C. Lack of support 802.11n

D. CAT5e cabling run to the AP

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When a client station sends a broadcast probe request frame with a wildcard SSID, how do APs respond?

A. For each probe request frame, only one AP may reply with a probe response.

B. Each AP responds in turn after preparing a probe response and winning contention.

C. Each AP checks with the DHCP server to see if it can respond and then acts accordingly.

D. After waiting a SIFS, all APs reply at the same time with a probe response.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Three access points are used within a facility. One access point is on channel 11 and the other two are on channel 1. The two access points using channel 1 are on either side of the access point using channel 11 and sufficiently apart so that they do not interfere each other when they transmit frames. Assuming no other Aps are in the vicinity, is CCI still a possibility in this network and why?

A. Yes, because the client devices connected to one of the channel 1 APs will transmit frames that reach the other channel 1 AP as well as

B. No, because the Aps are far enough apart that no CCI will occur

C. No, because CCI only occurs in the 5 GHz frequency band

D. Yes, because channel 11 loops around and causes CCI with channel 1

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

XYZ Company has decided to install an 802.11 WLAN system that will support 1000 wireless users, but they are concerned about network security. XYZ is interested in deploying standardized security features. In addition to WPA2-Enterprise with PEAP and role-based access control, XYZ would like to support management frame protection as well as a fast secure roaming protocol for future mobile handsets.

As XYZ Company selects a product to deploy, what two IEEE amendments, which are included in 802.11-2016, should be supported to provide the management frame protection and fast secure roaming security features?

A. 802.11j and 802.11k

B. 802.11r and 802.11k

C. 802.11z and 802.11w

D. 802.11r and 802.11w

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What common feature of MDM solutions can be used to protect enterprise data on mobile devices?

A. Over-the-air registration

B. Onboarding

C. Containerization

D. Self-registration

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

During a post-implementation survey, you have detected a non-802.11 wireless device transmitting in the area used by handheld 802.11g scanners. What is the most important factor in determining the impact of this non-802.11 device?

A. Protocols utilized

B. Channel occupied

C. Receive sensitivity

D. Airtime utilization

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

When a STA has authenticated to an AP (AP-1), but still maintains a connection with another AP (AP-2), what is the state of the STA on AP-1?

A. Transitional

B. Unauthenticated and Unassociated

C. Authenticated and Unassociated

D. Authenticated and Associated

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-Design-Guide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/Chapter-11.pdf


Question 15:

You are tasked with performing a throughput test on the WLAN. The manager asks that you use open source tools to reduce costs. What open source tool is designed to perform a throughput test?

A. IxChariot

B. Python

C. PuTTy

D. iPerf

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would result. [\x00-\x05]\x00\x00\x00? andgt;?[?[@?[?[?[

A. 00 00 00 01 FF FF BA

B. FF 00 00 00 00 FF BA

C. 04 00 00 00 FF FF BA

D. 04 06 00 00 00 FF FF BA

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

By default, what color does EnCase use for the contents of a logical file?

A. Red

B. Red on black

C. Black

D. Black on red

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

In hexadecimal notation, one byte is represented by character(s).

A. 8

B. 4

C. 2

D. 1

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A personal data assistant was placed in a evidence locker until an examiner has time to examine it. Which of the following areas would require special attention?

A. Chain-of-custody

B. Cross-contamination

C. Storage

D. There is no concern

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which of the following would be a true statement about the function of the BIOS?

A. The BIOS is responsible for checking and configuring the system after the power is turned on.

B. Botha and c.

C. The BIOS is responsible for swapping out memory pages when RAM fills up.

D. The BIOS integrates compressed executable files with memory addresses for faster execution.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What are the EnCase configuration .ini files used for?

A. Storing information that will be available to EnCase each time it is opened, regardless of the active case(s).

B. Storing the results of a signature analysis.

C. Storing pointers to acquired evidence.

D. Storing information that is specific to a particular case.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A case file can contain hard drive images?

A. 1

B. 5

C. 10

D. any number of

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

The temporary folder of a case cannot be changed once it has been set.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Bookmarks are stored in which of the following files?

A. All of the above

B. The case file

C. The evidence file

D. The configuration Bookmarks.ini file

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

In DOS acquisition mode, if a physical drive is detected, but no partition information is displayed, what would be the cause:

A. Neither a or b

B. Both a and b

C. There are no partitions present.

D. The partition scheme is not recognized by DOS.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

When an EnCase user double-clicks on a file within EnCase what determines the action that will result?

A. The setting in the evidence file.

B. Both a and b.

C. The settings in the case file.

D. The settings in the FileTypes.ini file.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Assume that MyNote.txt was allocated to clusters 5, 9, and 11. Cluster 6, 7, and 8 belong to MyResume.doc. Both files have been deleted and the directory entry in the FAT file system for MyResume.doc has been overwritten.

What clusters would EnCase use to undelete MyNote.txt?

A. 7,8,9

B. 5,9,11

C. 6,7,8

D. 5,6,7

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

When a non-compressed evidence file is reacquired with compression, the acquisition and verification hash values for the evidence will remain the same for both files.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following directories contain the information that is found on a Windows 98 Desktop?

A. C:\Program files\Programs\Desktop

B. C:\Startup\Desktop\Items

C. C:\Windows\Desktop

D. C:\Desktop

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Assume that MyNote.txt has been deleted. The FAT file system directory entry for that file has been overwritten. The data for MyNote.txt is now:

A. Allocated

B. Cross-linked

C. Unallocated

D. Overwritten

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

A project manager is attempting to establish the proper sequencing and duration of project activities. Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial?

A. Network diagram

B. Ishikawa diagram

C. WBS

D. Gantt chart

Correct Answer: A

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 160


Question 2:

Which of the following are characteristics of a project? (Choose two.)

A. Ongoing

B. Temporary

C. Start and finish

D. Achieving a goal

E. Consisting of milestones

F. Restricting the budget

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 27


Question 3:

A company has determined it does not have the in-house capability to perform a project and wants to procure third-party services.

Which of the following documents will the company MOST likely release FIRST?

A. RFO

B. RFI

C. RFP

D. RFQ

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 300


Question 4:

The project manager was asked to provide recommendations for the removal of a vendor. A meeting was scheduled with the key stakeholders and the project sponsor to highlight the reasons for this recommendation.

Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting to support this recommendation? (Choose two.)

A. The issue log to show why the vendor should be replaced.

B. The team action items to show why the vendor should be replaced.

C. The scope statement to show why the vendor should be replaced.

D. A procurement plan to show why the vendor should be replaced.

E. A change management plan to have the vendor replaced.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 291,

p. 327


Question 5:

A project manager is creating the WBS.

In which of the following phases is the project?

A. Initiation

B. Planning

C. Execution

D. Closing

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 139


Question 6:

Which of the following is a characteristics of a matrix organization?

A. Authority lies solely with the project manager.

B. Authority is directed by the project architect.

C. Authority is shared between the project manager and project coordinator.

D. Authority is shared between functional and project managers.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 56


Question 7:

A WBS is being developed for a project.

Which of the following would be BEST suited to contribute cost and time estimates for the project activities?

A. Project team members

B. Project sponsor

C. Project manager

D. Project scheduler

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 82


Question 8:

A stakeholder is unaware of a project\’s status.

Which of the following documents should the project manager consult to ensure all stakeholders are notified of project changes? (Choose two.)

A. Status report

B. Organizational chart

C. RACI matrix

D. Meeting minutes

E. Communication plan

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 261


Question 9:

There are four parallel paths on a network diagram. The summary duration of each path is below:

A, C, G: 10 weeks A, B, F: 8 weeks D, E, H: 12 weeks D, B, F: 7 weeks

Which of the following tasks are on the critical path?

A. A, C, G

B. A, B, F

C. D, E, H

D. D, B, F

Correct Answer: C

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 175


Question 10:

A project team is comprised of a mix of in-house and virtual team members.

When a complex announcement needs to go out to the entire project team, which of the following is the MOST effective way to communicate it?

A. Composing a project team email with the details of the announcement is the best method. It gives the project manager the opportunity to explain but not be overcome with questions from the team.

B. Using text messaging to make the announcement is the best method. It allows the project manager to reach the project team members wherever they are located.

C. Sending a fax is the best method. It gives the project manager the opportunity to explain the announcement and come up with questions and answers the team may have.

D. Hosting a web conference meeting is the best method. It gives the project manager the opportunity to explain the announcement and answer any questions from the team.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 260


Question 11:

A project requires daily status updates.

Which of the following is the MOST effective method for providing these updates?

A. Backlog

B. Standup

C. Kickoff

D. Retrospective

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 306


Question 12:

A project sponsor and Chief Information Officer (CIO) disagree about how to release the final deliverables to the market. The sponsor wants to do a massive product release, while the CIO wants to be extremely cautious and add more time for testing and defect resolution. The project manager works with both parties and determines the best solution is to roll the product out in a pilot release to see how it tests, and then use customer feedback to determine next steps.

Which of the following conflict resolution techniques is the project manager using?

A. Forcing

B. Negotiating

C. Compromising

D. Avoiding

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 200


Question 13:

A project manager is justifying a required change with the associated impact on the project.

Which of the following is the NEXT step?

A. Implementation

B. Approval

C. Validation

D. Auditing

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 294


Question 14:

The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.)

A. managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.

B. contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.

C. setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.

D. outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects.

E. approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 85


Question 15:

A critical stakeholder has requested additional status updated beyond the schedule.

Which of the following factors MOST likely needs to be accounted for when communication with this stakeholder?

A. Confidentiality

B. Criticality

C. Frequency

D. Cultural differences

Correct Answer: C

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 265


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Question 1:

Your customer has requested you to set up a Procurement Business Unit to serve the procurement needs of various Requisitioning Business Units. How would you set up the Shared Procurement model in Oracle Procurement Cloud?

A. by setting up a Service Provider relationship in the Business Unit setup

B. by settings up the Default Procurement BU in the Requisitioning Business Function

C. by setting up a Procurement Business Unit and a Requisitioning Business Unit in the Functional Setup Manager

D. by providing a default Business Unit in the Procurement Agent setup

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Your client\’s business requires that only requester A is provided access to the punchout catalog and not requester B.

Identify the configuration to achieve this.

A. Set the punchout catalog security in the punchout catalog definition page to “Secured by worker” with the value “Requester A” and no setup for requester B.

B. Set the punchout catalog-associated content zone security to “Secured by worker” with the value “Requester A” and no setup for requester B.

C. Assign the “advance procurement requester” role to requester A and the “procurement requester” role to requester B.

D. Assign the “punchout catalog request” role to procurement requester A and “procurement requester” role to requester B.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A buyer often orders an item BA82829 by box but the store manager stocks the item as individual units by using the `Each\’ unit of measure. Item BA82829 can be ordered from three suppliers and the box sizes differ by supplier (12, 24 and 36). Identify the correct option to set up these units of measure in Product Hub (PIM).

A. Create multiple BoxY UOMs, where Y is the quantity per box, and an Each UOM, and assign them to different UOM classes.

B. Create multiple BoxY UOMs, where Y is the quantity per box, and an Each UOM, and assign them to the same UOM class.

C. Create aBox UOM and an Each UOM and assign them to different UOM classes.

D. Always use the Each UOM and do not create Purchase Orders for Box.

E. Create a Box UOM and an Each UOM and assign both to the same UOM class.

Correct Answer: E


Question 4:

What is required to make data available in Oracle Procurement Cloud Transactional Business Intelligence graphs?

A. No need to schedule anything; data will be populated in real time.

B. Schedule concurrent requests to run every hour.

C. Schedule ESS jobs to run according to customer requirements.

D. Configure the Extract Transform and Load tool data will be populated in real time.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Identify two control options that are enabled when a buyer selects the `Group requisition lines\’ field while creating a Blanket Purchase Agreement.

A. Group requisitions

B. Apply price updates to existing orders

C. Use need-by date

D. Automatically submit for approval

E. Use ship-to organization and location

Correct Answer: CE


Question 6:

After gathering requirements from the business leads of customer organization, you have set up the Bill-to location at multiple places during Oracle Procurement Cloud implementation. Identify the source from which the purchase order defaults the Bill-to location.

A. from the `Configure Requisitioning business function\’

B. from the `Supplier site assignment\’ first and if it is `Null\’ then from `Common Payables and Procurement options\’

C. from the `Common Payables and Procurement options\’ first and if it is `Null\’ then from `Supplier site assignment\’

D. from the `Configure Procurement business function\’

E. from the Business Unit setup

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which three business users can submit a new supplier request?

A. Category Manager

B. Supplier Administrator

C. Catalog Administrator

D. Warehouse Manager

E. Self-Service Procurement user

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 8:

When creating a non-catalog requisition, a requester checks the `New Supplier\’ checkbox. By checking this checkbox, the user is ____.

A. required to execute an ESS (Enterprise Scheduler Service) job to initiate the supplier registration process

B. suggesting a possible new supplier that requires further action by the Buyer and the Supplier Administrator

C. triggering an automated process to create a new supplier

D. triggering an automated process to intimate a new supplier to register with the user\’s company

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Your customer has the following approval hierarchy:

Role: Employee; Document: Purchase Requisition; Approval Limit:$3500

Role: Manager; Document: Purchase Requisition; Approval Limit:$6700

Role: Senior Manager; Document: Purchase Requisition; Approval Limit:$12000

Purchase Order requisitions are set up with an approval method of Employee-Supervisor hierarchy and a Forward method of Direct. “Can Change Forward-To” is set to No. An employee has created a purchase requisition with a total amount of $8200, and wants the manager to review the requisition electronically before it is approved. How can this requirement be fulfilled?

A. Advise the employee to have the manager review the requisition via the requisition summary form before submitting the requisition for approval.

B. Advise the manager to have the senior manager forward the requisition back to the employee before approving.

C. Advise the employee to print the requisition, scan it into an email, and then email it to the manager.

D. Advise the employee tochange the Forward-To on the requisition to the manager.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Identify two tasks that can be performed in the Functional Setup Manager by a customer when configuring setup data.

A. importing and exporting data between instances

B. configuring Oracle Cloud Applications tomatch business needs

C. collecting data to populate the order orchestration and planning data repository

D. setting up and maintaining data by means of the Manage Admin menu

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

During the implementation, your customer wants to understand the key features of the two- stage Request For Quotation (RFQ) available in Oracle Sourcing Cloud.

Identify three features of the two-stage RFQ.

A. Technical and Commercial Evaluation

B. Open Auctions

C. Two stage Evaluation

D. Response Visibility Blind

E. Response Visibility Open

F. Response Visibility is always Sealed

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 12:

You want Supplier Accounts to be created by external supplier users in Supplier Portal. Which Supplier Registration option would allow this?

A. Discrete Supplier Registration

B. External Supplier Registration

C. Global Supplier Registration

D. Internal Supplier Registration

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

During a Procurement Contract implementation, a customer would like to set up their own line type for buying services. They intend to use this line for negotiating terms for future purchase of service and do not have a defined scope of work.

Identify the source that the customer needs to select while creating the line type to meet this requirement.

A. Item, buy

B. Item, buy agreement

C. Free form, buy agreement

D. Free form, buy

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

During an Oracle Procurement Cloud implementation, you have been asked to provide View access to all purchasing document to all buyers in Procurement Business Unit A. What will you do to configure this change?

A. Update each buyer\’s access using “ManagerProcurement Agent” for procurement Business Unit A.

B. Modify “Configure Procurement Business Function” for procurement Business Unit A and provide access to all buyers.

C. Define all buyers as employees in procurement Business Unit A.

D. Configure a newdocument style and assign it to each buyer in “Manage Procurement Agent”.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Your customer is implementing the full suite of Cloud procurement. They would like to know how best they can utilize the Contract Terms library.

Identify three applications from where users can access the Contract Terms library for setting up “contract terms” for different documents.

A. Purchasing

B. Procurement Contracts

C. Sourcing

D. Self Service Procurement

E. Supplier Model

Correct Answer: ABC


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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which trusted infrastructure component is missing and represented by the area labeled “A”? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Key Management Server

B. vSphere Virtual Machine Encryption

C. Key Provider Service

D. Attestation Service

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/com.vmware.vsphere.security.doc/GUID-CEFC9BAE1685-49A7-9854-4AC997F2F1C3.html https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/com.vmware.vsphere.security.doc/GUID-E4945A3BBCBE-42AD-A00F-6A6957217041.html


Question 2:

What are two supported ESXi boot options? (Choose two.)

A. NFS

B. iSCSI

C. vSAN

D. SAN

E. vSphere Virtual Volumes

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

An administrator receives an escalation to investigate a low disk space alarm on a datastore. The administrator discovers that a snapshot has been accidentally taken on a production, write-intensive database server. The snapshot has grown to nearly 1 TB in size in less than an hour and continues growing every second.

Which behavior should the administrator expect while deleting the snapshot? (Choose the best answer.)

A. ESXi will create a virtual RAM disk to cache ongoing database write activity; performance impact will be limited.

B. ESXi will commit the snapshot delta disk into the base disk; ongoing database write activity could result in long stun times.

C. ESXi will merge the snapshot delta disk into the base disk; the virtual machine will be briefly stunned.

D. ESXi will instantly switch from the base disk to the snapshot delta disk with no performance impact.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which two storage technologies can an administrator use to deploy the Virtual Machine File System (VMFS)? (Choose two.)

A. Fibre Channel storage

B. vSAN storage

C. Virtual Volumes storage

D. NFS storage

E. iSCSI storage

Correct Answer: AE

Reference:

https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/vmware-vmfs-techoverview-white-paper.pdf


Question 5:

Which TCP/IP stack can support management traffic, vSphere vMotion, IP storage and vSphere Fault Tolerance? (Choose the best answer.)

A. VXLAN TCP/IP stack

B. Provisioning TCP/IP stack

C. Default TCP/IP stack

D. vSphere vMotion TCP/IP stack

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.networking.doc/GUID-D4191320209E-4CB5-A709-C8741E713348.html


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effective role the test1 account has on the Finance01 virtual machine? (Choose the best answer.)

A. No access

B. Administrator

C. Read-only

D. Virtual machine user

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A recently deployed set of test virtual machines are impacting the performance of a company development team project datastore. The shared cache server appears to be suffering from storage congestion.

Storage I/O Control is already enabled on all company datastores.

Which two steps should the administrator take to improve the performance of the cache server? (Choose two.)

A. Update the storage provider for the existing array.

B. Create a claim rule to control the storage path.

C. Configure the path selection policy.

D. Configure storage shares per virtual machine.

E. Configure storage limits per virtual machine.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

A single host is manually configured to company standards.

Which option would an administrator select to capture this configuration for future use? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Extract Host Profile

B. Reset Host Customizations

C. Attach Host Profile

D. Import Host Profile

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/com.vmware.esxi.install.doc/GUID4D8EDD07-6C77-4845-8F0E-A0F4C9102840.html


Question 9:

What is the minimum CPU core requirement for successful installation, or upgrade, or ESXi on a host? (Choose the best answer.)

A. 8

B. 1

C. 32

D. 2

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/com.vmware.esxi.upgrade.doc/GUID-DEB8086A-306B4239-BF76-E354679202FC.html


Question 10:

What is the server virtualization product that combines the ESXi hypervisor and the vCenter Server? (Choose the best answer.)

A. NSX

B. vRealize Operations Manager

C. vSphere

D. vSAN

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

Understanding VMware vSphere 7 Editions and Features


Question 11:

Which two vSphere features enable remote site availability? (Choose two.)

A. Proactive High Availability

B. vSphere Fault Tolerance

C. Cross vCenter Migration

D. vSphere vMotion

E. vSphere Replication

Correct Answer: AE


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true regarding the state of the virtual machine (VM) if an administrator clicks the “Delete All” option? (Choose two.)

A. The VM state will match Snap-C.

B. No snapshots will remain on the VM.

C. Snap-A will be intact on the VM.

D. The VM state will match Snap-B

E. The VM state will match Snap-A.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

An administrator wants to be able to log in to the vSphere Client and view the inventories of two vCenter Server instances.

What must the administrator do to meet this requirement? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Configure Enhanced Linked Mode on each vCenter Server instance after deployment is complete.

B. Connect each vCenter Server instance to the same vCenter Single Sign-On domain during deployment.

C. Connect each vCenter Server instance to the same vCenter Single Sign-On domain using the vSphere Client.

D. Configure the vCenter Server Management Interface to view both vCenter Server instances.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

When deploying a vCenter Server Appliance, which two single sign-on (SSO)-related options are presented to an administrator? (Choose two.)

A. Create a vCenter Enhanced Linked Mode group

B. Create a vCenter Single Sign-On domain

C. Join an existing vCenter Single Sign-On domain

D. Repoint to another domain

E. Reset Single Sign-On password

Correct Answer: BC


Question 15:

Which step is required when adding an existing hard disk that is configured as a boot disk during virtual machine creation? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Enable Secure Boot.

B. Select ‘RDM Disk’ from the ‘Add New Device’ drop-down menu.

C. Remove the existing disk before adding the boot disk.

D. Set the boot delay to at least 5,000 milliseconds.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

You are designing a monthly projection Planning application. A starting point projection file is received with the current month data. Data forms, Business Rules, and Essbase data load rules, and reports should always focus on the current projection month.

What is most efficient way to design the components to reduce maintenance each month?

A. Manually update the forms each month and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.

B. Manually update the forms each month; Use “CurMo” Global variable for Business Rules and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Essbase data load rules, and reports.

C. Use the Planning data form utility to update data forms and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.

D. Use a “CurMth” substitution variable for data forms, Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.

E. Use the Planning data form utility to update data forms; Use “CurMo” Global variable for Business Rules and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Essbase data load rules, and reports.

Correct Answer: E

In Business Rules use a global variable. In Essbase, use a substitution variable.


Question 2:

You are designing a new Planning application.

Which two requirements dictate multiple plan types in a single Planning application?

A. Multiple currencies are required.

B. Currency rates must be kept in a separate database.

C. Sales are planned by product and channel, and salary expenses are planned by position.

D. Security is applied to the Entity dimension but can differ for users for accounts “sales” and “expenses”.

E. You have decided to implement the Capital Expense planning module in addition to PSL budgeting.

F. Data cannot be shared across the Organization dimension.

Correct Answer: CE

C: When you define an entity member, you assign a plan type for which it is valid. If you do not assign a plan type to a member, that member\’s children do not have access to that plan type. If you move a member, and the new parent of that member is valid for different plan types, then the member remains valid only for the plan types it has in common with the new parent.

Your organization may require that different entity members prepare different plans. For example, in your organization all entity members may submit expense plans, but entity members that are cost centers do not submit revenue plans.

When you define entity members you specify the plan types for which they are valid. Because data forms are associated with plan

types, this allows you to control which entity members can enter data for each plan type.

E: You would need two plan type. To add a Capital Expense plan type to an existing application see Note below.

Note: To add the Capital Asset Planning plan type to a Planning application:

1 In Performance Management Architect, select Navigate, then Administer, then Application Library.

2 In the Application Library, right-click the application to which you want to add the Capital Asset Planning plan type, select Initialize, then select Capital Asset or Workforce and Capital Asset if the application will use both plan types.

3 To confirm the initialization, click Yes.


Question 3:

Assuming you have a Period dimension with calendar months rolling to quarters to total years. If you assign the property Time Balance Last to the “Headcount” account member, what will user see for Q1?

A. January\’s value

B. March\’s value

C. The total of January February March

D. The average of January February March

Correct Answer: B

Set the time balance as “last” when you want the parent value to represent the value of the last member in the branch (often at the end of a time period).

Note:

Essbase – Time balance properties

The tags :

first,

last,

average,

and expense

are available exclusively for use with accounts dimension members.

Using this tag requires an accounts dimension and a time dimension

If an accounts dimension member uses the time balance property, it affects how Essbase calculates the parent of that member in the time dimension. By default, a parent in the time

dimension is calculated based on the consolidation and formulas of its children. For example, in the database in this scenarion, the Q1 member is the sum of its children (Jan, Feb, and Mar). However, setting a time balance property causes

parents, for example Q1, to roll up differently.

If you set the time balance as first, last, or average, set the skip property to tell Essbase what to do when it encounters missing values or values of 0.


Question 4:

A Business Rule is launched from a data form.

What will Planning utilize to provide a valid list of members for a run-time prompt?

A. Members defined on the data form

B. Planning Metadata security

C. Business Rules security access privileges

D. Essbase security filters

E. Business Rules Basic User Role

Correct Answer: A

When launched, a business rule can prompt you to enter variable information, called a runtime business rule designer sets up runtime prompts.

If a business rule has a runtime prompt and Use Members on Forms is selected, the default member on the runtime prompt window matches the current member in the page or POV axes of the open data form. Reference: Oracle Hyperion Planning, Fusion Edition, Release 11.1.1.3, Entering Runtime Prompts


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Question 1:

Which two of the following are valid targets for the server-side build command? (Choose two.)

A. generated

B. beandoc

C. codetables

D. messages

E. database

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/blogs/5e15a5a7-d4d6-4880-bd9c-e6819061a832/resource/HandyGuideToCuramBuildTargets_v1.0.pdf?lang=en


Question 2:

Which two artifacts types are customized by merging? (Choose two.)

A. “-config.xml

B. *.nav

C. *.properties

D. *.uim

E. *.vim

Correct Answer: CD


Question 3:

Suppose that you created a new Process class in your model and performed a build generated command.

What do you need to do next?

A. Implement the methods in the generated impl version of the class.

B. Copy the generated impl class from the build/svr/gen/temp folder into the impl package.

C. Implement the modeled methods in the base class.

D. Create a new class in the impl package.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

How is the menu option button in this image created?

A. A PAGE-level ACTION_SET with more than 2 ACTION_CONTROLs is added.

B. A PAGE-level ACTION_SET with 1 ACTION_CONTROL containing a LINK element is added.

C. A LIST-level ACTION_SET with 1 ACTION_CONTROL containing a LINK element is added.

D. A LIST-level ACTION_SET with more than 2 ACTION_CONTROLs is added.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which statement about UIM pages is correct?

A. A UIM page can appear in more than one component, and the version displayed at runtime depends on which components the user is allowed to access.

B. A UIM page cannot appear in more than one component.

C. UIM pages appear in more than one component will be merged.

D. If a UIM page appears in more than one component, only the page from the highest priority component will be displayed at runtime.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS8S5A_6.1.0/com.ibm.curam.content.doc/WebClientReference/r_WEBCREF_Reference1Attributes22.html


Question 6:

You want to add a custom attribute to an out-of-the-box (OOTB) struct called CaseDetails. You create a custom struct called CustomCaseDetails. Both structs are shown in the diagram.

Which association should you model next?

A. CustomCaseDetails subclasses CaseDetails.

B. CustomCaseDetails aggregates CaseDetails.

C. CaseDetails is assigned to CustomCaseDetails.

D. CaseDetails aggregates CustomCaseDetails.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which documentation resource contains a list of allowed and discouraged overrides for domain definitions?

A. Modeling Reference Guide.

B. Server Developer\’s Guide.

C. Web Client Reference Guide.

D. Development Compliancy Guide.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You want to make a field on a page mandatory. Which task is valid?

A. Configure the Allow_Nulls property of the entity\’s attribute to be set to false.

B. Configure the Require_Mandatory property of the entity\’s attribute to be set to true.

C. Specify the name of the field in the Mandatory_Fields property of the modeled operation\’s argument struct.

D. Write a custom Java function to check for a value being present and specify the function on the Custom_Validation_Function_Name property of the relevant domain definition.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS8S5A_7.0.9/com.ibm.curam.content.doc/ServerModelling/ctr_CuramServerModellingGuide.html


Question 9:

What is specified in the .app file for application-wide searching?

A. References to search pages.

B. The name of the parameter that stores the search input value.

C. The name of the server interface that is called to perform the search.

D. A default search input value.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Consider this out-of-the-box (OOTB) façade:

Which statement represents a compliant approach when customizing the mandatory fields of the createAccount() operation?

A. Change the Mandatory Field option for create createAccount() in a custom façade that subclasses AccountFaçade and set Replace_Superclass=No.

B. Change the Mandatory Field option for create createAccount() in a custom façade that does not subclass AccountFaçade.

C. Change the Mandatory Field option for create createAccount() in a custom façade that subclasses AccountFaçade and set Replace_Superclass=Yes.

D. It is not possible a Mandatory field option, so a support case should be raised if the developer thinks it needs to be changed.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which three of the following are IBM Cúram Application Modules? (Choose three.)

A. Technical Services.

B. Business Intelligence and Analytics.

C. Provider Management.

D. Social Program Management Platform.

E. Child Welfare.

F. Case Management.

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS8S5A_7.0.4/com.ibm.curam.content.doc/product_overview/c_enterprise_modules.html


Question 12:

Which tool do you use?

A. Passport Advantage.

B. Fix Central.

C. RFE Tool.

D. SR Tool.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which statement about the use of Google Guice in IBM Cúram SPM is true?

A. It is an adaptor for entity classes.

B. It provides a factory mechanism.

C. It dispatches events to listeners.

D. It removes the need for façade classes.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Examine this UIM code snippet:

How will the field element be displayed in the list?

A. As an editable text field.

B. As a non-editable text field.

C. As a text field hyperlink.

D. As a drop-down list field.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Examine the following piece of code:

curam.impl.MyProcess = curam.fact.MyProcessFactory.newInstance();

If curam.impl.MyProcess is defined as an abstract class as recommended, which statement is true?

A. The code is incorrect because MyProcess should be from the base package.

B. The code is incorrect because MyProcess should be from the intf package.

C. The code is incorrect because the class curam.fact.MyProcessFactory does not contain a static method newInstance ().

D. There is nothing wrong with this code.

Correct Answer: C